The correct answer is indicated by the " * ".
These are not listed in strict numerical order.
Station 1 (red)
1. In cattle, parasites can cause ________.
a. hide damage
b. decreased nutrient utilization
c. decreased performance
d. all of the above*
e. none of the above
2. In order for calves to comply with the IQ+BEEF requirements:
a. calves must receive the pasturella vaccination
b. scurs are acceptable
c. calves must be implanted
d. all bulls must be castrated and healed*
e. all of the above
3. List the beef quality grades in order of decreasing value.
a. select, prime, choice, commercial standard, utility, cutter, canner
b. select, prime, choice, standard, commercial, utility, canner, cutter
c. standard, choice, select, prime, utility, commercial, cutter, canner
d. prime, choice, standard, select, commercial, utility, canner, cutter
e. prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, canner*
Station 12 (red)
34. What best describes beef quality grade?
a. An estimate of the percent yield of boneless, closely trimmed retail
cuts from the round, loin, rib and chuck.
b. The degree of maturity.
c. The degree of marbling.
d. An attempt to evaluate the factors that predict the palatability
of meat.*
e. None of the above.
35. What is the maximum amount for injection at any one site unless
specified on the label?
a. 10 cc*
b. 12 cc
c. 15 cc
d. 20 cc
e. It does not matter.
36. When is the beef hot carcass weight (HCW) measured?
a. Prior to going into the cooler, after harvest and before the carcass
is shrouded.*
b. Before harvest and before the carcass is shrouded.
c. Before harvest and after the carcass is shrouded.
d. Just after the carcass is shrouded.
e. None of the above.
Station 23 (red)
67. What factors are used to calculate a beef yield grade?
a. ratio of fat to lean
b. ribeye area and fat thickness only
c. fat thickness, ribeye area, hot carcass weight and kidney, pelvic
and heart fat*
d. live weight, hot carcass weight, fat thickness and ribeye area
e. none of the above
68. At what age would you like a beef heifer to have her first
calf?
a. 3 years
b. 2 years*
c. 18 months
d. 1 year
e. none of the above
69. What is the gestation length of a beef cow?
a. 115 days
b. 151 days
c. 230 days
d. 284 days*
e. 345 days
Station 34 (red)
100. In what weight range would you like a beef steer to finish?
a. 800-900 lbs.
b. 900-1,000 lbs.
c. 1,000-1,100 lbs.
d. 1,150-1,350 lbs.*
e. 1,350-1,450 lbs.
101. The compartment in the ruminant digestive tract with the
largest capacity is the:
a. omasum
b. abomasum
c. cecum
d. reticulum
e. rumen*
102. The longissimus muscle in beef cattle is also called:
a. stifle
b. round
c. tongue
d. jumper muscle
e. rib eye*
Station 45 (red)
133. Bloat in cattle is caused by the accumulation of:
a. carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4)*
b. excess protein and energy
c. calcium and magnesium
d. air and water
e. carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2)
134. Identify this feedstuff.
a. supplement
b. oats
c. barley
d. corn
e. corn gluten meal*
135. Identify this feedstuff.
a. oats
b. soybean meal
c. cracked corn
d. shelled corn*
e. steam flaked corn
Station 56 (blue)
16. Identify this feedstuff.
a. oats
b. barley
c. cottonseed hulls*
d. soybean meal
e. cracked corn
17. Identify this legume.
a. alfalfa
b. ladino clover
c. red clover*
d. orchard grass
e. fescue grass
18. What segment of the beef industry has had the largest increase
in retail profit over the last three years?
a. heat and eat products*
b. hamburger
c. steaks
d. roasts
e. none of the above
Station 67 (blue)
49. What scientific name refers to cattle?
a. ovine
b. porcine
c. equine
d. caprine
e. bovine*
50. How many chromosomes are present in cattle?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 52
d. 60*
e. none of the above
51. What is the average body temperature of cattle?
a. 98.6°
b. 100°
c. 101°
d. 102.5°*
e. none of the above
Station 78 (blue)
82. Which of the following is the best example of a protein source?
a. tallow
b. soybean meal*
c. corn
d. orchard grass
e. chopped corn silage
83. What mineral deficiency causes grass tetany, a condition in
which cattle appear nervous, lack muscle coordination, and muscles twitch?
a. magnesium*
b. calcium
c. phosphorous
d. selenium
e. sodium
84. What best describes cold shortening?
a. The condition when cattle shiver.
b. The condition when the sarcomeres in the muscle shorten due to a
rapid drop in temperature and meat loses some of its tenderness.*
c. The condition when carcasses are cooled rapidly in order to produce
a more palatable product.
d. Cold Crisco.
e. None of the above.
Station 89 (blue)
115. Which of the following is an example of a legume?
a. alfalfa
b. clover
c. soybeans
d. all of the above*
e. none of the above
116. In beef, external fat thickness is measured over the ribeye
muscle between the ______ ribs.
a. 10th and 11th
b. 12th and 13th*
c. 14th and 15th
d. 15th and 16th
e. 16th and 17th
117. Which is a structural fault in bulls?
a. plow hocked
b. shovel legged
c. sickle hocked*
d. bow shouldered
e. pseudohorned
Station 100 (blue)
148. Which organ in the cow produces the hormone secretin?
a. pinna
b. ovary
c. cecum
d. spleen
e. small intestine*
149. What is the toxin that is produced by a mold that commonly
infests corn, peanuts and cottonseed?
a. moldicides
b. herbitoxin
c. aflatoxin*
d. sarin
e. acetatoxin
150. What mineral is needed for ruminant synthesis of Vitamin B12?
a. sodium
b. saline
c. cobalt*
d. zinc
e. salt
Station 2 (red)
4. What signs are not associated with a healthy goat?
a. smooth, shiny coat
b. eyes clear and bright
c. good appetite
d. alert attitude
e. none of the above are correct*
5. Body temperature of the goat ranges from __ to __ 0F.
a. 98.6 to 99.0
b. 100.0 to 102.0
c. 102.5 to 104.0*
d. 105.0 to 106.0
e. none of the above are correct
6. What is the length of pregnancy in goats?
a. 115 days
b. 282 days
c. 336 days
d. 60 days
e. 150 days*
Station 13 (red)
37. Where can the pulse be checked on a goat?
a. the neck
b. the tail
c. the inner thigh*
d. the foreleg
e. the mammary gland
38. What is a wether?
a. immature female
b. castrated male*
c. breeding male
d. same as a kid
e. same as a doe
39. How many times per year should goats be dewormed?
a. once
b. twice*
c. three
d. four
e. none of the above are correct
Station 24 (red)
70. Which is essential for raising healthy goats?
a. vaccination program
b. deworming program
c. fresh, clean water
d. quality hay and browse
e. all of the above*
71. Goats, like cattle and sheep are ruminants. What do
they eat primarily?
a. meat
b. vegetables
c. fruit
d. forages*
e. none of the above
72. What are the beneficial bugs in the rumen?
a. viruses and bacteria
b. viruses and fungi
c. bacteria and fungi
d. parasites (worms)
e. bacteria and protozoa*
Station 35 (red)
103. How are volatile fatty acids or VFAs used by goats?
a. protein source
b. energy source*
c. vitamin source
d. mineral source
e. all of the above
104. Roughages are high in what nutrient that only ruminants and
horses can use?
a. vitamins
b. protein
c. energy
d. minerals
e. fiber*
105. Which is not a legume?
a. birdsfoot trefoil
b. white clover
c. orchard grass*
d. alfalfa
e. red clover
Station 46 (red)
136. Where is the best place on the goat to assess body fat content?
a. the back
b. the sternal fat pad
c. the ribs
d. between the forelimbs
e. b and d*
137. What is the ideal body condition score for does at kidding?
a. 3.0-3.5*
b. 2.5-3.0
c. 4.0
d. 5.0
e. none of the above are ideal
138. What does colostrum contain that is important to disease
prevention in newborn kids?
a. fat
b. vitamins
c. protein
d. water
e. immunoglobulins or antibodies*
Station 57 (blue)
19. Which is not considered a dairy goat breed?
a. LaMancha
b. Alpine
c. Angora*
d. Nubian
e. Saanen
20. What mineral must be supplemented in the diet of all animals
in Indiana?
a. copper
b. selenium*
c. iron
d. potassium
e. calcium
21. What disease must goats be vaccinated for when undergoing
castration or dehorning?
a. Tetanus*
b. encephalitis
c. bluetongue
d. rabies
e. foot and mouth disease
Station 68 (blue)
52. Which statement is true of foot and mouth disease?
a. Affects all cloven hooved animals.*
b. Goats are not affected by the condition.
c. Animals are vaccinated routinely in the U.S. for this disease.
d. Does not need to be reported to the state/federal authorities.
e. Highly fatal disease of humans.
53. Mastitis describes an infection of what organ?
a. the heart
b. the kidneys
c. the lungs
d. the mammary gland*
e. the liver
54. Which is not true for pregnancy toxemia of goats?
a. Affects all goats regardless of body condition.*
b. It is a preventable condition.
c. Affects does with twins or greater numbers of kids.
d. Fat does are at high risk.
e. It is a condition of late pregnancy.
Station 79 (blue)
85. Which is true about caprine arthritis encephalitis or CAE
of goats?
a. Affects goats of all ages.
b. Causes arthritis in older goats.
c. Causes nervous disease in younger goats.
d. Transmitted in the colostrum of infected does.
e. All of the above are correct.*
86. Which is true with regards to preventing disease spread?
a. Observe and handle sick animals last.
b. Use separate clothes and shoes for handling sick animals.
c. Always wash hands after working with animals.
d. All of the above are correct.*
e. None of the above are correct.
87. Which is not one of the forestomachs of the ruminant?
a. abomasum
b. rumen
c. reticulum
d. omasum
e. cecum*
Station 90 (blue)
118. Which forage has the highest protein content?
a. fescue
b. orchard grass
c. alfalfa*
d. timothy
e. brome grass
119. Which organ in the dairy goat filters blood?
a. anterior pituitary
b. pineal gland
c. stomach
d. spleen*
e. pancreas
120. Which bone in the dairy goat is the thigh bone?
a. foramen
b. femur*
c. carpus
d. T13
e. tibia
Station 3 (red)
7. What is this?
a. Sand Sieve
b. Cheese Strainer
c. Penn State Forage Particle Separator*
d. Wisconsin Forage Particle Separator
8. What units are used to calculate the price for milk produced
at a dairy farm?
a. Quarts
b. Hundred weights (100 pounds)*
c. Tons (2,000 pounds)
d. Gallons
e. Tanker loads
9. Identify the following item.
a. Liner
b. Inflation
c. Milk tube
d. a or b*
e. None of the above.
Station 14 (red)
40. Identify the following item.
a. Paddle to stir cheese
b. 4 compartment sampler for a ruminant
c. California Mastitis Test Paddle*
d. "Once under" teat dipper
e. Wisconsin Mastits Test Paddle
41. Identify this plant.
a. Alfalfa
b. Brome grass
c. Red Clover
d. Ryegrass*
e. Timothy
42. Identify the following plant.
a. Soybean
b. Orchard grass
c. Alfalfa*
d. Red Clover
e. Sudan Grass
Station 25 (red)
73. Identify this feed.
a. Grass Silage
b. Alfalfa Silage*
c. High Moisture Corn
d. Whole Cotton Seed
e. Corn Silage
74. A body condition score of 3.5 points means the cow is:
a. Obese
b. Powerful
c. Quite thin
d. Slightly over conditioned*
e. Slightly under conditioned
75. What is the most important part of a milking routine?
a. Keep the milking parlor free of startling noises.
b. Dip teats after milking.
c. Put the milker on clean, dry teats.*
d. Assure smooth cow flow.
e. Wipe with individual paper towels.
Station 36 (red)
106. Why are dairy heifer calves separated from the dam immediately
after birth?
a. Control colostrum intake.
b. Prevent fecal contamination.
c. Prevent spread of pathogens from the cow's milk.
d. Make it easier to break bond that develops between cow and calf.
e. All of the above.*
107. What disease currently devastating England, causes blisters
on the feet and tongues of cloven hooved animals?
a. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
b. Johne's Disease
c. Blackleg
d. Blue Tongue
e. Foot and Mouth Disease*
108. Which of the following practices are important for biosecurity?
a. Wearing boots when visiting livestock farms.
b. Changing clothes before visiting your neighbor's livestock farm.
c. Asking foreign travelers to wait 5 days before visiting your farm.
d. Having a veterinarian check purchased animals before bringing them
to your farm.
e. All of the above.*
Station 47 (red)
139. Who pays for "Milk Mustache" advertisements?
a. Dairy farmers only
b. Dairy processors only
c. TV stations
d. Dairy Farmers and Dairy Processors*
e. The Indianapolis 500
140. What is a TMR?
a. Total Meal Ration
b. Total Mixed Ration*
c. Total Mineral Ratio
d. Tub Mixer Ration
e. None of the above
141. What does a plate cooler do on a dairy farm?
a. Cools plates.
b. Cools milk before it goes on the truck.
c. Sterilizes milk before it enters the bulk tank.
d. Cools milk before it enters the bulk tank.*
e. c and d
Station 58 (blue)
22. Cows begin to show symptoms of heat stress at what temperature?
a. 32 degrees F
b. 72 degrees F*
c. 32 degrees C
d. 92 degrees F
e. 102 degrees F
23. What breed is this cow?
a. Milking Shorthorn
b. Simental
c. Guernsey
d. Brown Swiss*
e. Holstein
24. What is considered the best material for bedding freestalls?
a. newspaper
b. straw
c. sand*
d. recycled manure
e. sawdust
Station 69 (blue)
55. What is this breed of dairy cow?
a. Holstein*
b. Brown Swiss
c. Jersey
d. Angus
e. Guernsey
56. Which of the following is a common foot problem in cattle?
a. Foot rot
b. Laminitis
c. Hairy Heel Warts
d. Sole Ulcers
e. All of the above.*
57. Which of the following feeds does not provide much fiber in
a diary cow's ration?
a. Corn Silage
b. Dry Hay
c. Whole Cotton Seed*
d. Soybean Meal
e. Tricale Silage
Station 80 (blue)
88. Approximately what percentage of lameness occurs in the rear
legs of dairy cows?
a. 25%
b. 90%*
c. 100%
d. about 50%
e. 75%
89. What is the most important economic disease of dairy cattle?
a. mastitis*
b. laminitis
c. salmonella
d. E. coli
e. milk fever
90. Which of the following instruments is best for applying teat
dip?
a.
b.
c. *
d.
e. Any will do.
Station 91 (blue)
121. Which of the following is true?
a. Cows need only limited ventilation.
b. Cows are stressed by heat beginning at 85 degrees Farenheit.
c. Cow freestalls must be 9 feet long.
d. Mattresses eliminate the need for any bedding.
e. Blood circulation to the udder improves when cows are lying down.*
122. How many liters in a gallon?
a. 2.5
b. 3.8*
c. 4.5
d. 5.8
e. 10.6
123. One ml equals ________ cc.
a. one*
b. ten
c. 12
d. 24
e. 100
Station 4 (red)
10. The average American eats ___ pounds of fish per year?
a. 35
b. 15*
c. 9
d. 25
e. 30
11. The highest concentration of Dissolved Oxygen in a pond occurs:
a. Mid to late morning
b. Mid to late afternoon*
c. Midnight
d. Dawn
e. Noon
12. The lowest concentration of Dissolved Oxygen in a pond occurs:
a. Mid morning
b. Mid afternoon
c. Mid evening
d. Just before dawn*
e. Midnight
Station 15 (red)
43. Most fish require a Dissolved Oxygen reading of at least ___ppm
for good health, etc.
a. 10
b. 16
c. 4*
d. 20
e. 50
44. African Fish, mouthbrooder, die in temperatures of less than
50 degrees F, white fish meat.
a. Catfish
b. Crappie
c. Tilapia*
d. Hybrid Striped Bass
e. Trout
45. How many fingerling catfish can you stock in a 40 cubic foot
cage?
a. 250
b. 350*
c. 475
d. 600
e. 800
Station 26 (red)
76. A fish stocked in ponds to eat weeds, etc…grows to 35~38 inches
in 5 years.
a. Trout
b. Sunfish
c. Catfish
d. Pike
e. Grass Carp*
77. Netting for fish cages can be made of what?
a. Plastic
b. Wire
c. Polyester
d. None of the above
e. All of the above*
78. What is the standard depth of netting used in fish cage construction?
a. 2 feet
b. 4 feet*
c. 6 feet
d. 8 feet
e. 10 feet
Station 37 (red)
109. When putting a cage in a pond, what is the minimum depth
the pond can be?
a. 2 inches below the bottom of the cage
b. 1 foot below the bottom of the cage
c. 2 feet below the bottom of the cage*
d. 4 feet below the bottom of the cage
e. 6 feet below the bottom of the cage
110. This fish can be grown in cages in ponds in winters in Indiana.
a. Catfish
b. Crayfish
c. Sunfish
d. Tilapia
e. Trout*
111. A type of pond built above ground in Indiana:
a. Bank pond
b. Dam Pond
c. Fenced pond
d. Levee pond*
e. Embanked pond
Station 48 (red)
142. What is a “medium” stocking rate for grass carp?
a. 5
b. 15*
c. 25
d. 35
e. 50
143. What are the small floating zooplankton in ponds called?
a. Alkaloids
b. Galls
c. Flukes
d. Limeoids
e. Bloom*
144. What is the device called to measure water clarity?
a. Biofilter
b. Quad meter
c. Secchi disc*
d. Density Box
e. Photometer
Station 59 (blue)
25. When is the best time to harvest fish?
a. Dawn
b. Mid morning
c. Noon
d. Late afternoon*
e. Night
26. What is the purpose of the biofilter in a recirculating system?
a. Add oxygen
b. Supply food for fish
c. Oxidize iron
d. Produce algae
e. Oxidize ammonia*
27. What is the most critical water quality for fish?
a. pH
b. 4-H
c. Nitrite
d. Oxygen*
e. Temperature
Station 70 (blue)
58. What is the biggest problem for oxygen for fish ponds in winter?
a. Ice
b. Snow*
c. Wind
d. Wind Chill
e. Freezing Rain
59. Rule of thumb to feed fish in cages.
a. All they want.
b. Have food floating all day.
c. Have food floating all night.
d. All they will clean up in 10- 15 minutes.*
e. Never over once per day.
60. Microscopic Algae can:
a. Forms scums
b. Cause red and black streaks in water
c. Can cause “oily” water
d. Are not consumed by grass carp
e. All of the above.*
Station 81 (blue)
91. When is the best time to apply aquatic herbicides?
a. Late spring*
b. Late fall
c. Late summer
d. July only
e. August only
92. Fish diseases are:
a. Easy to diagnose and treat.
b. Difficult to diagnose and easy to treat.
c. Not ever important.
d. Difficult to diagnose and treat.*
e. Easily identified by local veterinarians.
93. The most common fish kill in Indiana comes from:
a. Diseases
b. Parasites
c. Lightning
d. Oxygen*
e. Muddy water
Station 92 (blue)
124. If you stock 100 small mouth bass in a pond for sport fishing,
how many bluegill fish should you also stock?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500*
d. 1,000
e. 2,000
125. One pound equals ______________ grams.
a. 55
b. 100
c. 258.5
d. 454*
e. 1,000
126. One kilogram equals _________ pounds.
a. 1.1
b. 2.2*
c. 3.3
d. 6.0
e. 100.0
Station 5 (red)
13. Paylean should be fed to pigs weighing how many pounds?
a. 30-125
b. 90-125
c. 125-150
d. 150-240*
14. Where is the proper site for giving a baby pig an iron injection?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4*
15. What is the gestation length of a sow?
a. 65-68 days
b. 112-115 days*
c. 152-155 days
d. 201-204 days
Station 16 (red)
46. Using the universal system, what is the ear notch of this pig?
a. 11-3*
b. 32-9
c. 3-11
d. 24-10
47. What is the optimal length of time Paylean should be fed?
a. 10 days
b. 7 days
c. 60 days
d. 21 days*
48. Identify the breeds of swine in picture order.
a. Yorkshire, Chester White, Berkshire, and Tamworth
b. Yorkshire, Chester White, Poland China, and Duroc
c. Landrace, Chester White, Poland China, and Duroc*
d. Chester White, Landrace, Poland China, and Tamworth
Station 27 (red)
79. What is the most valuable pork cut?
a. Loin*
b. Ham
c. Shoulder
d. Bacon
80. Which one of the pork cuts is a Loin Chop?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4*
81. What two breeds does one cross to get a white pig with gray spots
on its rump, called a Blue Butt?
a. Hampshire X Duroc
b. Yorkshire X Chester White
c. Hampshire X Yorkshire*
d. Berkshire X Poland China
Station 38 (red)
112. A measure of carcass leanness is the loin eye area at what rib?
a. 10th*
b. 12th
c. 8th
d. 9th
113. Where is semen deposited in the sow?
a. Bladder
b. Vulva
c. Vagina
d. Cervix*
114. In which organ does the embryo grow and develop?
a. Ovaries
b. Uterine Horns*
c. Oviducts
d. Cervix
Station 49 (red)
145. What is this device used for?
a. Drinking a large beverage.
b. Inseminating a sow.*
c. Removing embryos from a female animal.
d. Inseminating a cow.
146. Which is considered to be a good indicator of frame size in feeder
pigs?
a. Length of tail
b. Length of body*
c. Breed
d. Weight
147. Gilts should reach puberty at what age?
a. 3 to 4 months
b. 4 to 5 months
c. 5.5 to 6.5 months*
d. 7.5 to 8 months
Station 60 (blue)
28. What do the letters PSE stand for?
a. Pink Soft Exudative
b. Pale Soft Exudative*
c. Pale Soggy Eggs
d. Pickled Sow Embryos
29. What is the minimum acceptable loin eye area?
a. 3 sq. inch
b. 5 sq. inch*
c. 7 sq. inch
d. 9 sq. inch
30. What is the average volume of semen produced by the boar?
a. 50-100
b. 100-150
c. 150-200 ml*
d. 200-300
Station 71 (blue)
61. What is the average litter size born alive?
a. 5
b. 10*
c. 15
d. 20
62. When measuring carcass composition using grids and probes,
which of the following factors are used to predict percent carcass lean?
1) warm carcass weight, 2) loin eye area at the 10th rib, 3) fat depth
at the 10th rib?
a. #1
b. #2
c. #3
d. #1, 2 and 3*
63. AutoFOM uses _________ to measure carcass fat and loin depth.
a. light reflectance
b. x-rays
c. gamma – rays
d. ultrasound*
Station 82 (blue)
94. The Tobec machine measures carcass lean content using:
a. light reflectance
b. x-rays
c. an electromagnetic field*
d. ultrasound
95. How many needle teeth do piglets have?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8*
d. all lower teeth
96. How long after the first vaccination does an animal start developing
immunity to the disease?
a. About 1 week
b. About 2 weeks*
c. About 3 weeks
d. About 1 month
Station 93 (blue)
127. Ractopamine does not do which of the following?
a. Increases carcass lean mass.
b. Increases feed intake.*
c. Decreases backfat thickness.
d. Increases protein accretion.
128. Which building did we all meet in for the welcome session
Wednesday afternoon?
a. Computer Science
b. Founders Building of 1869
c. Smith
d. Hovde
e. Class of 1950*
129. The size of a porcine ovum is:
a. that of a chicken egg
b. about one inch diameter
c. equal to this period “.” *
d. one-half the size of a chicken egg
e. so small that it would take one million side by side to equal one
mm
Station 6 (red)
16. Which of the following dog breeds shed very little hair, if
at all?
a. Labrador Retriever
b. Standard Poodle*
c. Brittany Spaniel
d. Dachshund
e. Old English Sheepdog
17. Which of the following is not a reason why cats will use a
scratching post?
a. Visual marking of territory/home range
b. Stretching after napping
c. Removing older nail sheaths from their claws
d. Scent marking of territory/home range
e. All of the above are reasons cats use a scratching post*
18. Which of the following dog breeds need the least amount of
outdoor exercise?
a. Golden Retriever
b. Australian Shepherd
c. Jack Russell Terrier
d. German Shorthair Pointer
e. Pekingese*
Station 17 (red)
49. Additional costs in the first year related to acquiring a
new puppy include:
a. Veterinary exam and preventive medications
b. Food and supplies
c. Neutering or pre-breeding testing
d. Training classes
e. All of the above are necessary*
50. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about litter
box care?
a. A household with two cats should have 3 litter boxes.
b. Remove the cat's waste every 24-48 hours.
c. Change the brand or type of litter frequently to keep your cat interested
in new textures.*
d. Thoroughly rinse and clean the box once a week.
e. Avoid use of heavily scented or perfumed litter in the litter box.
51. CERF stands for:
a. Central European Regional Four-H
b. Canine Ear Research Foundation
c. Cat Early Retirement Fund
d. Canine Eye Registry Foundation*
e. Caprine Evergreen Repellant Formula
Station 28 (red)
82. Which of the following best describes how to properly clean
a pet's ear?
a. Fill up the ear canal with cleaner, squish it around, and wipe out
with cotton balls.*
b. Apply hydrogen peroxide to dissolve the wax and kill bacteria.
c. Gently use cotton swabs to remove wax from deep in the ear canal.
d. Apply vinegar and water to dry out the ear.
e. Pluck all the hair out with an ear powder.
83. Dogs and cats typically need their first teeth cleaning and
polishing at what age?
a. 6-12 months
b. 1-2 years
c. 3-4 years*
d. 5-6 years
e. 7-10 years
84. Cats and small dogs are first considered "senior" (entering
their second half of life) at what age?
a. 5 years
b. 7 years*
c. 9 years
d. 11 years
e. 13 years
Station 39 (red)
115. Select the incorrect statement on horse reproduction.
a. Mares have two ovaries.
b. Mares are termed long-day breeders.
c. Twins are common in horses.*
d. The gestation length in horses is approx. 342 days.
e. The stallion has two testes.
116. Select the incorrect statement on horse anatomy.
a. The horse does not have a rumen.
b. The horse does have a gallbladder.*
c. The horse does not have an abomasum.
d. The coffin bone is located within the horse’s foot.
e. The horse does have a liver.
117. How many chromosomes does a newborn horse possess?
a. 24
b. 26
c. 43
d. 64*
e. 86
Station 50 (red)
148. Placental hormones of the horse include:
a. progesterone, estrogen, and eCG*
b. calcitonin, hCG, and progesterone
c. hCG, growth hormone, and somatomedin
d. progesterone and melatonin
e. hCG, progesterone, and estrogen
149. The stage of the horse’s estrous cycle that directly follows
estrus is:
a. proestrus
b. metestrus*
c. diestrus
d. anestrus
e. pseudo-estrus
150. In the stallion, the ___________ is the site of sperm storage
and final maturation.
a. testis
b. vas deferens
c. prostate gland
d. urethra
e. epididymis*
Station 61 (blue)
31. Ataxia in the horse is characterized by:
a. An inability to coordinate the muscles in the execution of
voluntary movement.*
b. The inability to expel the placenta after parturition.
c. The fact that twins are rare in horses.
d. Lack of milk let-down in the mare.
e. The presence of a PDA in the neonate.
32. An immature female chicken is called:
a. cockerel
b. hen
c. pullet *
d. leghorn
e. rooster
33. An immature male chicken is called:
a. poult
b. leghorn
c. cockerel*
d. gander
e. condor
Station 72 (blue)
64. The number of chromosomes in the chicken is:
a. 22
b. 36*
c. 46
d. 66
e. 86
65. Avian females have:
a. one functional ovary- on the left side*
b. one functional ovary-on the rightside
c. two functional ovaries
d. no ovaries
e. just lays eggs from preformed ova without ovaries
66. What is the normal body temperature of a chicken?
a. 95 F
b. 98 F
c. 100 F
d. 103 F
e. 107 F*
Station 83 (blue)
97. In birds, ______________ is a method of increasing ______________
over the respiratory dead-space.
a. convection, heat increment
b. panting, blood flow
c. gular flutter, air flow*
d. horripilation, evaporation
e. blood flow, effective surface area
98. Avian bones tend to have air filled spaces and hence are called
_________ bones.
a. light
b. vascular
c. ventilation
d. pneumatic*
e. von Willebrand's
99. An adult male duck is called a:
a. drake*
b. duckling
c. tom
d. tommy
e. gander
Station 94 (blue)
130. The breastbone in the chicken is also called the:
a. sternum*
b. girdle
c. femur
d. hock
e. pygostyle
131. The glandular stomach of the chicken is also called the:
a. crop
b. ventriculus
c. cecum
d. ceca
e. proventriculus*
132. The queen’s milk contains about:
a. 5% protein
b. 14% protein
c. 27% protein
d. 32% protein
e. 42% protein*
Station 7 (red)
19. The frequency of rumen contractions in a normal adult cow
is ____ per 2 minutes.
a. 1
b. 3*
c. 4
d. 6
e. 9
20. The average, normal temperature in a cow is:
a. 100.0o F
b. 101.5 *
c. 102.5
d. 103
e. 106
21. Capillary Refill Time (CRT) is used to evaluate an animal's:
a. Digestive system
b. Respiratory system
c. Cardiovascular system*
d. Lymphatic system
e. Integumentary system
Station 18 (red)
52. When giving a cow a bolus (pill), the balling gun is placed
_____ where the bolus is ejected from the balling gun.
a. In the animal's cheek (between teeth & cheek).
b. Under the tongue.
c. Behind and on top of the base of the tongue.*
d. In the esophagus.
e. On top of the tongue, in the middle of the mouth.
53. The intramuscular (IM) injection site of choice in cattle
over 300 lbs is:
a. Neck*
b. Triceps
c. Loin
d. Hamstring
e. Gluteal
54. Which one of the following is the least effective means of
keeping a cow from kicking?
a. Hobbles
b. Tie rear leg to a post behind the cow
c. Rope flank squeeze
d. Tail restraint
e. Nose leads (tongs)*
Station 29 (red)
85. A cow's primary means of defense is to:
a. Kick
b. Butt you with her head
c. Run*
d. Squeeze you up against a wall
e. Bite
86. Which one of the following knots will create a loop that will
not change in size regardless of how hard it is pulled?
a. Square
b. Two half hitches
c. Halter tie
d. Bowline*
e. Clove hitch
87. This piece of equipment is used to _____ (flank squeeze--delete
name on question)
a. Lift chunks of ice
b. Measure diameters of trees
c. Measure the width of a cow's hip bones
d. Keep a cow from kicking*
e. Hang a water bucket on the side of a stall
Station 40 (red)
118. Without turning their heads, cattle can see almost ____ degrees
around them.
a. 90
b. 180
c. 220
d. 270
e. 360*
119. The quickest and easiest, yet effective, method of restraint
used to castrate a bull calf is:
a. Nose leads
b. Tail restraint*
c. Hobbles
d. Flank squeeze
e. Criss-cross method of rope casting
120. The herding instinct in cattle is:
a. Extremely strong
b. Very strong*
c. Present sometimes
d. Present very little
e. Nonexistent
Station 51 (blue)
1. A bloated cow will show distension as a:
a. Distended rib cage
b. Distended right paralumbar fossa
c. Distended left paralumbar fossa*
d. Distended left lower abdomen
e. Distended right lower abdomen
2. A stressed bovine will have all of the following signs, the most
serious being:
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased respiratory rate
c. Sweating
d. Open mouth breathing*
e. Feel hot
3. The pulse site of choice on a cow is:
a. Under the jaw
b. Inside the knee
c. Between the dewclaws
d. On the inside of the back leg
e. On the ventral midline of the tail*
Station 62 (blue)
34. Animal health evaluation should always begin with:
a. Observation of the animal.*
b. Determination of the body temperature.
c. Examination of the digestive system.
d. Examination of feces.
e. Examination of blood from the animal.
35. To examine the lymphatic (immune) system in the dog or cat,
the simplest thing to do is:
a. Take a blood sample and count white blood cells.
b. Determine the animal's body temperature.
c. Check for a cough or snotty nose.
d. Palpate lymph nodes.*
e. Check the vaccination history.
36. A dog chewing on it's feet could be an indication of all of
the following except:
a. Food allergy
b. Thorns in the feet
c. Fleas
d. Allergy to molds
e. Hookworm infection*
Station 73 (blue)
67. In performing a necropsy on a pig, the snout should be cut
off to evaluate for:
a. Nasal bots
b. Atrophic rhinitis*
c. Nose length
d. Sinus infection
e. Hog rings
68. A good place to check the pulse on a dog is:
a. On the inside of the thigh.*
b. At the point of the chin.
c. On the ventral midline of the tail.
d. Between the dewclaws.
e. Under the tongue.
69. This instrument is used to: (balling gun--do not put
name of instrument on)
a. Extract rumen fluid from a cow.
b. Administer a bolus to a cow.*
c. Take a "punch biopsy" of tissue from a cow.
d. Collect a fecal specimen from an animal.
e. Measure medicine for treatment of horses.
Station 84 (blue)
100. Identify the knot shown by name:
a. Square knot
b. Clove hitch
c. Bowline*
d. Half hitch
e. Granny knot
101. This knot (goes with question 21 object) is used to:
a. Create a loop that will not slip.
b. Anchor something with a quick release.
c. Tie up cow's or horse's tails.
d. Join two ropes of different size.
e. a and d*
102. This instrument is used for what purpose? (ear thermometer)
a. Rectal palpation in cats.
b. Endoscopy of lizards.
c. Measuring body temperature in dogs and cats.*
d. Examining the ears of small animals.
e. Examining dogs for cataracts.
Station 95 (blue)
133. Cats with polydactyly have:
a. Poor eye sight
b. Extra toes*
c. Blood-tinged urine
d. Spots on their coats that are devoid of hair
e. Dead fetuses within the uterus
134. The average normal body temperature of the cat is:
a. 95.6 F
b. 98.6 F
c. 100.0 F
d. 101.5 F*
e. 106 F
135. The organ in the cat that produces insulin is the:
a. thyroid gland
b. pineal gland
c. bladder
d. pancreas*
e. liver
Station 8 (red)
22. The national organization that recognizes breeds of rabbits
is:
a. The Society for Animal Science
b. The American Rabbit Breeders Association*
c. The Indiana Rabbit Breeders Association
d. The United States Department of Agriculture
e. The American Association for Laboratory Animal Science
23. Rabbits that are over ___________ pounds should be housed
on solid bottom floors.
a. 5
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12*
e. 15
24. Temperatures in excess of ____________0 Fahrenheit will impair
the semen quality of most bucks.
a. 70
b. 75
c. 80*
d. 90
e. 100
Station 19 (red)
55. Breeders would most likely use _______________ for producing
research rabbits.
a. Inbreeding*
b. Hybrid breeding
c. Cross breeding
d. Outbreeding
e. None of the above
56. Air should be exhausted out of the barn at:
a. Highest point of the barn, with prevailing winds.*
b. Lowest point of the barn, against prevailing winds.
c. Highest point of the barn, against prevailing winds.
d. Lowest point of the barn, with prevailing winds.
e. Highest point of the barn, cross-wise to prevailing winds.
57. The breed that is displayed is:
a. Flemish Giant
b. New Zealand White
c. Rhinelander
d. Dwarf Hoto *
e. Checkered Giant
Station 30 (red)
88. The breed that is displayed is:
a. New Zealand White
b. Dutch Belted
c. English Lop*
d. Netherland Dwarf
e. Flemish Giant
89. The breed that is displayed is:
a. French Angora
b. English Lop
c. Harlequin
d. Hoto
e. Himalayan*
90. The body type of this rabbit is:
a. Commercial
b. Mandolin
c. Full Arched
d. Compact
e. Cylindrical*
Station 41 (red)
121. The body type of this rabbit is:
a. Commercial
b. Mandolin*
c. Full Arched
d. Compact
e. Cylindrical
122. Many rabbits are pre-disposed to respiratory disease due
to:
a. Breed type
b. Genetics
c. Poor handling
d. Inadequate ventilation*
e. Inadequate veterinary care
123. Endoparasites are parasites that live:
a. In the barn
b. In the rabbit hutch
c. In the rabbit*
d. Outside the rabbit
e. On the rabbit
Station 52 (blue)
4. Rabbits are the intermediate host for:
a. Tapeworms*
b. Hookworms
c. Inchworms
d. Whipworms
e. Earthworms
5. The “peek a boo” worm usually attaches itself to the rabbit
in the area of:
a. The anal region
b. The ears
c. The chin *
d. The hocks
e. The forehead
6. Psoroptes Cuniculi is an arthropod, which attacks the rabbit
in the area of:
a. The rear hocks
b. The chin
c. The head
d. The abdomen
e. The ears*
Station 63 (blue)
37. Rabbit feed pellets should generally be:
a. Long and wide in diameter
b. Long and short in diameter
c. Short and wide in diameter
d. Short and short in diameter*
e. None of the above
38. To prevent overfeeding breeders should feed rabbits the amount
of feed that they will routinely consume in:
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes*
d. 60 minutes
e. 90 minutes
39. Rabbits being nocturnal animals should be fed:
a. First thing in the morning
b. Mid-morning
c. Noon
d. Mid-Afternoon
e. Evening*
Station 74 (blue)
70. “Night feces” are a source of vitamin _____ for the domestic
rabbit.
a. A
b. B*
c. C
d. D
e. E
71. To condition a domestic rabbit, one should feed a diet that
is:
a. High in protein, low in fiber
b. High in fiber, low in energy*
c. High in fiber, high in energy
d. Low in fiber, low in energy
e. Low in fiber high in energy
72. Newborn rabbits are totally dependent upon maternal care for:
a. 1 – 2 weeks
b. 2 – 3 weeks
c. 3 – 5 weeks
d. 4 – 6 weeks*
e. 6 – 8 weeks
Station 85 (blue)
103. Which rabbit pelt is used for designer fur?
a. Belgian hare
b. Netherland dwarf
c. Dutch belt
d. Himalayan
e. Rex*
104. If a nesting box is changed from one location to another,
it is very important to place ______ in the box as when the rabbit was
initially trained.
a. Excreta*
b. Hair
c. Environmental enrichment device
d. Crock
e. None of the above
105. Does may be successfully rebred _____ days after kindling.
a. 2
b. 3*
c. 4
d. 5
e. 10
Station 96 (blue)
136. A _______ ml syringe will suffice for most injections with
the domestic rabbit.
a. 1 – 3*
b. 2 – 4
c. 3 – 5
d. 4 – 6
e. 6 – 8
137. A red blood cell can also be termed a:
a. cytoplasm
b. platelet
c. leukocyte
d. erythrocyte*
e. thrombocyte
138. Luteinizing hormone is produced by the:
a. ovary
b. bone cells
c. brain
d. pineal gland
e. anterior pituitary*
Station 9 (red)
25. Which of the following is not one of the top 5 egg producing
states in the United States today?
a. Ohio
b. Indiana
c. Pennsylvania
d. Minnesota*
26. The only difference between a white egg and a brown egg, besides
the color, is:
a. The amount of calcium in the shell.
b. The amount of protein in the yolk.
c. The increased size of the yolk in brown eggs.
d. None of the above.*
27. At what age do turkeys begin laying eggs?
a. 20 weeks
b. 10 weeks
c. 40 weeks
d. 30 weeks*
Station 20 (red)
58. At 42 days of age, a broiler can be expected to weigh:
a. 21 lbs
b. 8 lbs
c. 6.5 lbs
d. 4.1 lbs *
59. Layers are brought into lay by, which of the following?
a. Layers are reared until 30-weeks of age and then they automatically
begin laying eggs.
b. Layers are reared until 20 to 25 weeks of age and then photostimulated
to bring them into egg production. *
c. Layers are reared until 60-weeks of age and then photostimulated
to bring them into egg production.
d. Layers are reared until 80-weeks of age and then photostimulated
to bring them into egg production.
60. The domestic chicken has ________ air sacs.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. 9*
Station 31 (red)
91. Which vitamin is needed for blood clotting?
a. A
b. D
c. C
d. E
e. K*
92. Select one volatile fatty acid produced in the rumen.
a. carbon dioxide
b. acetate*
c. oxygen
d. amino acid
e. methane
93. ________ is the act of giving birth.
a. dilatation
b. capacitation
c. hemostasis
d. parturition*
e. fertilization
Station 42 (red)
124. The "buffy coat" on top of the red blood cells after centrifugation
are:
a. caused by anemia
b. dead red blood cells
c. leukocytes*
d. erythrocytes
e. caused by dehydration
125. Edema is an excess of:
a. intracellular fluid
b. plasma in blood
c. cytoplasmic fluid
d. interstitial fluid in tissue*
e. blood in tissue
126. Rapid destruction of erythrocytes in the blood will cause
elevated levels of:
a. white blood cells
b. somatomedins
c. angiotensinogen
d. plasma albumin
e. plasma bilirubin*
Station 53 (blue)
7. Clotted blood that has been subjected to centrifugation yields:
a. cerebrospinal fluid
b. saliva
c. lymph
d. serum*
e. plasma
8. Purdue University was founded in:
a. 1669
b. 1711
c. 1869*
d. 1901
e. 1963
9. Caprine is an adjective that refers to:
a. cattle
b. chickens
c. ducks
d. swine
e. goats*
Station 64 (blue)
40. A dairy cow has ______ mammary gland(s).
a. one
b. two
c. four*
d. six
e. three
41. One square yard equals ______ square feet.
a. one
b. three
c. nine*
d. ten
e. sixteen
42. In cattle, this term means naturally having no horns.
a. docked
b. pointed
c. buffed
d. polled*
e. smooth
Station 75 (blue)
73. A mare has __________ mammary gland(s).
a. one
b. two*
c. three
d. four
e. five
74. An intact male sheep is called a:
a. boar
b. stud
c. ram*
d. bull
e. staple
75. The __________ produces bile.
a. brain
b. spleen
c. pineal gland
d. cecum
e. liver*
Station 86 (blue)
106. Cottonseed meal contains about ____ percent protein.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40*
d. 60
e. 67.5
107. The ______ nerve is the largest nerve in the dog.
a. third
b. vagus
c. ninth
d. optic*
e. sympathetic
108. The ___________ in cattle is really the chest area.
a. flank
b. poll
c. shank
d. brisket*
e. paunch
Station 97 (blue)
139. The female cat is known as a ______ ovulator.
a. spontaneous
b. quick
c. slow
d. reflex*
e. double
140. The generation interval in cattle is about ____ years.
a. one
b. two
c. four*
d. six
e. 7 to 10
141. The building blocks for proteins are:
a. steroids
b. fats
c. hormones
d. amino acids*
e. vitamins
Station 10 (red)
28. Which forage is a legume?
a. Orchard grass
b. Fescue
c. Bluegrass
d. Alfalfa*
e. Flax
29. Which feed is used to supply energy to lambs?
a. Limestone
b. Soybean meal
c. Corn*
d. Flax
e. Vitamin D
30. Pregnancy detection in ewes is usually determined with which
technology?
a. Ultrasound*
b. Laprascopic/manual techniques
c. X-ray films
d. Insemination detector
e. Hormone assay of urine
Station 21 (red)
61. Which of the following is not one of the four main wholesale
cuts from a lamb carcass?
a. Leg
b. Rack
c. Shoulder
d. Neck*
e. None of the above
62. What factor is the primary determinant of the USDA Yield Grade
for sheep?
a. Leg score
b. Fat thickness*
c. Break joint
d. Ribeye size
e. Neck score
63. A subcutaneous injection for a lamb would be given where?
a. In the muscle
b. In the mouth
c. Under the skin*
d. Rectally
e. Per os
Station 32 (red)
94. Footrot in sheep is caused by?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria*
c. Nutritional disorder
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
95. Sheep feet are trimmed to:
a. Prevent footrot
b. Make them look better
c. Help the sheep walk easier
d. All of the above*
e. None of the above
96. When moving or showing sheep, you should be on what side of
the animal?
a. Left*
b. Right
c. Rear
d. Underneath
e. In front of
Station 43 (red)
127. What is an average range for a lamb’s carcass dressing percent?
a. 38 to 42%
b. 48 to 52%*
c. 58 to 62%
d. 68 to 72%
e. 75 to 100%
128. Flushing is used in sheep to:
a. Treat a disease
b. Improve reproductive performance*
c. Get them ready for the fair
d. Prepare for shearing
e. Prepare for selling
129. Which of the following is not one of the four compartments
of a sheep stomach?
a. Rumen
b. Omasum
c. Abomasum
d. Colon*
e. Reticulum
Station 54 (blue)
10. What are some basic types of production records used to select
sheep?
a. Type of birth*
b. Show ring placing of sire
c. Breed
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
11. Withdrawal time for medications means:
a. Time an animal must be off medication before slaughter.*
b. Time feed and water is withheld.
c. Amount of medication given to an animal.
d. None of the above.
e. a and c from above.
12. Labels on medications give instructions for:
a. Dosage given to animal.
b. How to store medication.
c. Withdrawal time.
d. Precautions.
e. All of the above.*
Station 65 (blue)
43. Club lamb fungus, or ringworm, is a significant health issue
in sheep because it:
a. Can infect people*
b. Can kill sheep
c. Will never go away
d. Makes carcass condemned
e. All of the above
44. Sheep catch ringworm by:
a. Frequent shearing and washing
b. Sharing contaminated equipment
c. Contact with an infected sheep
d. All of the above*
e. None of the above
45. Realtime ultrasound can be used to:
a. Measure fat depth in an animal
b. Measure ribeye area
c. Determine pregnancy
d. All of the above*
e. None of the above
Station 76 (blue)
76. Which is evaluated in a ram breeding soundness exam?
a. Physical condition*
b. Show ring placing
c. Performance records
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
77. Where do you handle lambs to predict carcass fat depth?
a. Lower leg
b. Neck
c. Ribs and backbone*
d. Shoulder
e. All of the above
78. Where do you handle lambs to predict carcass muscle?
a. Loin and leg*
b. Flank
c. Neck
d. Backbone
e. Mouth
Station 87 (blue)
109. An example of a grass would be:
a. Red clover
b. Lespedeza
c. Alfalfa
d. Trefoil
e. Fescue*
110. Footwear is disinfected to:
a. Keep your boots from smelling
b. Control spread of disease*
c. To make your boots shiny
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
111. The blades on a sheep shearing machine are called:
a. Rake and cutter
b. Comb and brush
c. Top and bottom blades
d. Comb and cutter*
e. None of the above
Station 98 (blue)
142. Which of the following is not an amino acid?
a. arginine
b. lysine
c. leucine
d. cystine
e. septine*
143. ___________ is the study of animal behavior.
a. Nephrology
b. Ethology*
c. Histology
d. Behavology
e. Psychology
144. TGE in swine is caused by a:
a. bacterium
b. fungus
c. tick
d. rat
e. virus*
Station 11 (red)
31. The priority rank for supplying nutrients in horse diets should
always be which of the following?
a. Grain > supplements > hay > pasture > water
b. Pasture > hay > grain > supplements > water*
c. Water > hay > pasture > grain > supplements
d. Hay > grain > water > pasture > supplements
e. Supplements > hay > grain > pasture > water
32. What percentage of the horse’s body weight would you expect
it to maximally eat of total dry matter every day?
a. ½%
b. 2 ½%*
c. 5%
d. 10%
e. 20%
33. What category of adult horse has the highest requirements
per day for crude protein, calcium, and energy total?
a. maintenance
b. gestation
c. lactation*
d. intense work
e. breeding
Station 22 (red)
64. Approximately how much water would you expect a 1,300-pound
horse to drink per day?
a. 6 – 7 quarts
b. 6 – 7 gallons
c. 12 – 14 quarts
d. 12 - 14 gallons*
e. 24 – 28 gallons
65. In what segment of the horse industry are there the most jobs
and potential for income?
a. On-farm breeding
b. Feed, health & equipment sales*
c. Training
d. Jockey
e. Veterinarian
66. During what month would you expect most of the foals in North
America to be born?
a. January
b. February
c. March
d. April*
e. May
Station 33 (red)
97. At what stage of horse pregnancy would you expect the endrometrial
cups to be formed in the mare?
a. day 12
b. day 24
c. day 36*
d. day 48
e. day 60
98. Which of the following is a mycotoxin affecting the horse?
a. fumonisin*
b. vomitoxin
c. zeralenone
d. aflatoxin
e. endophyte
99. What is the acronym (letters for four words in title) for
the foal loss problem in Lexington?
a. MRLS*
b. HASB
c. KTBA
d. THKF
e. WCTS
Station 44 (red)
130. In the end, what is thought to be the cause of the abortions/stillbirths
of 30% of the 2001 foal crop in central Kentucky?
a. estrogens in clover
b. zeralenone in bluegrass
c. fumonisin in rye grass
d. hydrogen cyanide in cherry tree leaves*
e. endophyte in fescue
131. What is the word or type of metabolism that describes the
muscle type of horses, which goes for long, slow distances and is best
suited to utilize oxygen efficiently without buildup of lactic acid?
a. aerobic*
b. ataxia
c. hyperkalemic
d. anaerobic
e. hypoglycemic
132. Approximately what heart rate represents the VO2 max of an
athletic horse?
a. 40 bpm
b. 80 bpm
c. 120 bpm
d. 160 bpm
e. 200 bpm*
Station 55 (blue)
13. What is the respiratory disease in horses that we call heaves
and approximates emphysema and difficulty exhaling?
a. roaring
b. COPD*
c. thrush
d. asthma
e. navicular
14. Which of the following is not a method of increasing the intensity
of the work in a standard exercise test for hoses on a treadmill?
a. Add weight
b. Work faster
c. Go up an incline
d. Work longer*
e. Soften the footing
15. On which digit does the horse stand?
a. one
b. two
c. three*
d. four
e. five
Station 66 (blue)
46. What is the common name for this bone of the horse?
a. cannon bone*
b. pastern bone
c. shoulder bone
d. elbow
e. coffin bone
47. What disease is associated with the degradation of this bone?
a. laminitis
b. navicular*
c. bowed tendons
d. bucked shins
e. carpal chips
48. What structure of the horse’s leg does this bone represent?
a. elbow
b. knee
c. sesamoid
d. pastern
e. splint*
Station 77 (blue)
79. What common unsoundness is caused by long, low, weak, pasterns;
working horses in deep surfaces and results in inflammation and hemorrhage
around the deep digital flexor tendon?
a. tendonitis
b. bowed tendon*
c. curbs
d. check ligaments
e. laminitis
80. What is the primary “soft tissue” structure that keeps the
animal’s leg upright, stabilizes the pastern joints, and keeps the horses
foot from extending or flexing too far?
a. superficial flexor tendon
b. frog
c. semitendonosis
d. deltoid muscles
e. suspensory ligament*
81. What is the acronym (first letters of words in title) for
Purdue University’s therapeutic horseback riding & driving program?
a. CORRAL
b. NARHA
c. THE AQHA
d. THE NRHA
e. THE CHAPS*
Station 88 (blue)
112. What is the average or “ideal” body condition score for horses?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5*
d. 7
e. 9
113. What is the name of the farm that is home to Purdue’s Intercollegiate
Horse Show Teams?
a. Fantasy
b. Foxton*
c. Three Chimneys
d. Forrest Hill
e. Kings Hill
114. What is the largest expense in routine management of a horse
boarding stable?
a. Hoof care
b. insurance
c. health care
d. feed*
e. equipment
Station 99 (blue)
145. At what age would most Thoroughbred racehorses begin routine
training?
a. 12 months
b. 18 months*
c. 24 months
d. 30 months
e. 36 months
146. What is the chemical symbol for potassium?
a. Bo
b. P
c. Po
d. K*
e. M
147. What is the chemical symbol for sodium?
a. S
b. So
c. Ca
d. Na*
e. Xa