Questions used for the written quiz on Friday morning, June 15, 2001

The correct answer is indicated by the " * ".

These are not listed in strict numerical order.


Station 1 (red)
 

1. In cattle, parasites can cause ________.
a. hide damage
b. decreased nutrient utilization
c. decreased performance
d. all of the above*
e. none of the above

2. In order for calves to comply with the IQ+BEEF requirements:
a. calves must receive the pasturella vaccination
b. scurs are acceptable
c. calves must be implanted
d. all bulls must be castrated and healed*
e. all of the above

3. List the beef quality grades in order of decreasing value.
a. select, prime, choice, commercial standard, utility, cutter, canner
b. select, prime, choice, standard, commercial, utility, canner, cutter
c. standard, choice, select, prime, utility, commercial, cutter, canner
d. prime, choice, standard, select, commercial, utility, canner, cutter
e. prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, canner*

Station 12 (red)
 

34.  What best describes beef quality grade?
a. An estimate of the percent yield of boneless, closely trimmed retail cuts from the round, loin, rib and chuck.
b. The degree of maturity.
c. The degree of marbling.
d. An attempt to evaluate the factors that predict the palatability of meat.*
e. None of the above.

35.  What is the maximum amount for injection at any one site unless specified on the label?
a. 10 cc*
b. 12 cc
c. 15 cc
d. 20 cc
e. It does not matter.

36.  When is the beef hot carcass weight (HCW) measured?
a. Prior to going into the cooler, after harvest and before the carcass is shrouded.*
b. Before harvest and before the carcass is shrouded.
c. Before harvest and after the carcass is shrouded.
d. Just after the carcass is shrouded.
e. None of the above.

Station 23 (red)
 

67.  What factors are used to calculate a beef yield grade?
a. ratio of fat to lean
b. ribeye area and fat thickness only
c. fat thickness, ribeye area, hot carcass weight and kidney, pelvic and heart fat*
d. live weight, hot carcass weight, fat thickness and ribeye area
e. none of the above

68.  At what age would you like a beef heifer to have her first calf?
a. 3 years
b. 2 years*
c. 18 months
d. 1 year
e. none of the above

69.  What is the gestation length of a beef cow?
a. 115 days
b. 151 days
c. 230 days
d. 284 days*
e. 345 days

Station 34 (red)
 

100.  In what weight range would you like a beef steer to finish?
a. 800-900 lbs.
b. 900-1,000 lbs.
c. 1,000-1,100 lbs.
d. 1,150-1,350 lbs.*
e. 1,350-1,450 lbs.

101.  The compartment in the ruminant digestive tract with the largest capacity is the:
a. omasum
b. abomasum
c. cecum
d. reticulum
e. rumen*

102.  The longissimus muscle in beef cattle is also called:
a. stifle
b. round
c. tongue
d. jumper muscle
e. rib eye*

Station 45 (red)
 

133.  Bloat in cattle is caused by the accumulation of:
a. carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4)*
b. excess protein and energy
c. calcium and magnesium
d. air and water
e. carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2)

134.  Identify this feedstuff.
a. supplement
b. oats
c. barley
d. corn
e. corn gluten meal*

135.  Identify this feedstuff.
a. oats
b. soybean meal
c. cracked corn
d. shelled corn*
e. steam flaked corn

Station 56 (blue)
 

16.  Identify this feedstuff.
a. oats
b. barley
c. cottonseed hulls*
d. soybean meal
e. cracked corn

17.  Identify this legume.
a. alfalfa
b. ladino clover
c. red clover*
d. orchard grass
e. fescue grass

18.  What segment of the beef industry has had the largest increase in retail profit over the last three years?
a. heat and eat products*
b. hamburger
c. steaks
d. roasts
e. none of the above

Station 67 (blue)
 

49.  What scientific name refers to cattle?
a. ovine
b. porcine
c. equine
d. caprine
e. bovine*

50.  How many chromosomes are present in cattle?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 52
d. 60*
e. none of the above

51.  What is the average body temperature of cattle?
a. 98.6°
b. 100°
c. 101°
d. 102.5°*
e. none of the above

Station 78 (blue)
 

82.  Which of the following is the best example of a protein source?
a. tallow
b. soybean meal*
c. corn
d. orchard grass
e. chopped corn silage

83.  What mineral deficiency causes grass tetany, a condition in which cattle appear nervous, lack muscle coordination, and muscles twitch?
a. magnesium*
b. calcium
c. phosphorous
d. selenium
e. sodium

84.  What best describes cold shortening?
a. The condition when cattle shiver.
b. The condition when the sarcomeres in the muscle shorten due to a rapid drop in temperature and meat loses some of its tenderness.*
c. The condition when carcasses are cooled rapidly in order to produce a more palatable product.
d. Cold Crisco.
e. None of the above.

Station 89 (blue)
 

115.  Which of the following is an example of a legume?
a. alfalfa
b. clover
c. soybeans
d. all of the above*
e. none of the above

116.  In beef, external fat thickness is measured over the ribeye muscle between the ______ ribs.
a. 10th and 11th
b. 12th and 13th*
c. 14th and 15th
d. 15th and 16th
e. 16th and 17th

117. Which is a structural fault in bulls?
a. plow hocked
b. shovel legged
c. sickle hocked*
d. bow shouldered
e. pseudohorned

Station 100 (blue)
 

148.  Which organ in the cow produces the hormone secretin?
a. pinna
b. ovary
c. cecum
d. spleen
e. small intestine*

149.  What is the toxin that is produced by a mold that commonly infests corn, peanuts and cottonseed?
a. moldicides
b. herbitoxin
c. aflatoxin*
d. sarin
e. acetatoxin

150. What mineral is needed for ruminant synthesis of Vitamin B12?
a. sodium
b. saline
c. cobalt*
d. zinc
e. salt

Station 2 (red)
 

4.  What signs are not associated with a healthy goat?
a. smooth, shiny coat
b. eyes clear and bright
c. good appetite
d. alert attitude
e. none of the above are correct*

5.  Body temperature of the goat ranges from __ to __ 0F.
a. 98.6 to 99.0
b. 100.0 to 102.0
c. 102.5 to 104.0*
d. 105.0 to 106.0
e. none of the above are correct

6. What is the length of pregnancy in goats?
a. 115 days
b. 282 days
c. 336 days
d. 60 days
e. 150 days*

Station 13 (red)
 

37.  Where can the pulse be checked on a goat?
a. the neck
b. the tail
c. the inner thigh*
d. the foreleg
e. the mammary gland

38.  What is a wether?
a. immature female
b. castrated male*
c. breeding male
d. same as a kid
e. same as a doe

39.  How many times per year should goats be dewormed?
a. once
b. twice*
c. three
d. four
e. none of the above are correct

Station 24 (red)
 

70.  Which is essential for raising healthy goats?
a. vaccination program
b. deworming program
c. fresh, clean water
d. quality hay and browse
e. all of the above*

71.  Goats, like cattle and sheep are ruminants.  What do they eat primarily?
a. meat
b. vegetables
c. fruit
d. forages*
e. none of the above

72.  What are the beneficial bugs in the rumen?
a. viruses and bacteria
b. viruses and fungi
c. bacteria and fungi
d. parasites (worms)
e. bacteria and protozoa*

Station 35 (red)
 

103.  How are volatile fatty acids or VFAs used by goats?
a. protein source
b. energy source*
c. vitamin source
d. mineral source
e. all of the above

104.  Roughages are high in what nutrient that only ruminants and horses can use?
a. vitamins
b. protein
c. energy
d. minerals
e. fiber*

105.  Which is not a legume?
a. birdsfoot trefoil
b. white clover
c. orchard grass*
d. alfalfa
e. red clover

Station 46 (red)
 

136.  Where is the best place on the goat to assess body fat content?
a. the back
b. the sternal fat pad
c. the ribs
d. between the forelimbs
e. b and d*

137.  What is the ideal body condition score for does at kidding?
a. 3.0-3.5*
b. 2.5-3.0
c. 4.0
d. 5.0
e. none of the above are ideal

138.  What does colostrum contain that is important to disease prevention in newborn kids?
a. fat
b. vitamins
c. protein
d. water
e. immunoglobulins or antibodies*

Station 57 (blue)
 

19.  Which is not considered a dairy goat breed?
a. LaMancha
b. Alpine
c. Angora*
d. Nubian
e. Saanen

20.  What mineral must be supplemented in the diet of all animals in Indiana?
a. copper
b. selenium*
c. iron
d. potassium
e. calcium

21.  What disease must goats be vaccinated for when undergoing castration or dehorning?
a. Tetanus*
b. encephalitis
c. bluetongue
d. rabies
e. foot and mouth disease

Station 68 (blue)
 

52.  Which statement is true of foot and mouth disease?
a. Affects all cloven hooved animals.*
b. Goats are not affected by the condition.
c. Animals are vaccinated routinely in the U.S. for this disease.
d. Does not need to be reported to the state/federal authorities.
e. Highly fatal disease of humans.

53.  Mastitis describes an infection of what organ?
a. the heart
b. the kidneys
c. the lungs
d. the mammary gland*
e. the liver

54.  Which is not true for pregnancy toxemia of goats?
a. Affects all goats regardless of body condition.*
b. It is a preventable condition.
c. Affects does with twins or greater numbers of kids.
d. Fat does are at high risk.
e. It is a condition of late pregnancy.

Station 79 (blue)
 

85.  Which is true about caprine arthritis encephalitis or CAE of goats?
a. Affects goats of all ages.
b. Causes arthritis in older goats.
c. Causes nervous disease in younger goats.
d. Transmitted in the colostrum of infected does.
e. All of the above are correct.*

86.  Which is true with regards to preventing disease spread?
a. Observe and handle sick animals last.
b. Use separate clothes and shoes for handling sick animals.
c. Always wash hands after working with animals.
d. All of the above are correct.*
e. None of the above are correct.

87.  Which is not one of the forestomachs of the ruminant?
a. abomasum
b. rumen
c. reticulum
d. omasum
e. cecum*

Station 90 (blue)
 

118.  Which forage has the highest protein content?
a. fescue
b. orchard grass
c. alfalfa*
d. timothy
e. brome grass

119.  Which organ in the dairy goat filters blood?
a. anterior pituitary
b. pineal gland
c. stomach
d. spleen*
e. pancreas

120.  Which bone in the dairy goat is the thigh bone?
a. foramen
b. femur*
c. carpus
d. T13
e. tibia

Station 3 (red)
 

7.  What is this?
a. Sand Sieve
b. Cheese Strainer
c. Penn State Forage Particle Separator*
d. Wisconsin Forage Particle Separator

8.  What units are used to calculate the price for milk produced at a dairy farm?
a. Quarts
b. Hundred weights (100 pounds)*
c. Tons (2,000 pounds)
d. Gallons
e. Tanker loads

9.  Identify the following item.
a. Liner
b. Inflation
c. Milk tube
d. a or b*
e. None of the above.

Station 14 (red)
 

40.  Identify the following item.
a. Paddle to stir cheese
b. 4 compartment sampler for a ruminant
c. California Mastitis Test Paddle*
d. "Once under" teat dipper
e. Wisconsin Mastits Test Paddle

41.  Identify this plant.
a. Alfalfa
b. Brome grass
c. Red Clover
d. Ryegrass*
e. Timothy

42.  Identify the following plant.
a. Soybean
b. Orchard grass
c. Alfalfa*
d. Red Clover
e. Sudan Grass

Station 25 (red)
 

73.  Identify this feed.
a. Grass Silage
b. Alfalfa Silage*
c. High Moisture Corn
d. Whole Cotton Seed
e. Corn Silage

74.  A body condition score of 3.5 points means the cow is:
a. Obese
b. Powerful
c. Quite thin
d. Slightly over conditioned*
e. Slightly under conditioned

75.  What is the most important part of a milking routine?
a. Keep the milking parlor free of startling noises.
b. Dip teats after milking.
c. Put the milker on clean, dry teats.*
d. Assure smooth cow flow.
e. Wipe with individual paper towels.

Station 36 (red)
 

106.  Why are dairy heifer calves separated from the dam immediately after birth?
a. Control colostrum intake.
b. Prevent fecal contamination.
c. Prevent spread of pathogens from the cow's milk.
d. Make it easier to break bond that develops between cow and calf.
e. All of the above.*

107.  What disease currently devastating England, causes blisters on the feet and tongues of cloven hooved animals?
a. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
b. Johne's Disease
c. Blackleg
d. Blue Tongue
e. Foot and Mouth Disease*

108.  Which of the following practices are important for biosecurity?
a. Wearing boots when visiting livestock farms.
b. Changing clothes before visiting your neighbor's livestock farm.
c. Asking foreign travelers to wait 5 days before visiting your farm.
d. Having a veterinarian check purchased animals before bringing them to your farm.
e. All of the above.*

Station 47 (red)
 

139.  Who pays for "Milk Mustache" advertisements?
a. Dairy farmers only
b. Dairy processors only
c. TV stations
d. Dairy Farmers and Dairy Processors*
e. The Indianapolis 500

140.  What is a TMR?
a. Total Meal Ration
b. Total Mixed Ration*
c. Total Mineral Ratio
d. Tub Mixer Ration
e. None of the above

141. What does a plate cooler do on a dairy farm?
a. Cools plates.
b. Cools milk before it goes on the truck.
c. Sterilizes milk before it enters the bulk tank.
d. Cools milk before it enters the bulk tank.*
e. c and d

Station 58 (blue)
 

22.  Cows begin to show symptoms of heat stress at what temperature?
a. 32 degrees F
b. 72 degrees F*
c. 32 degrees C
d. 92 degrees F
e. 102 degrees F

23.  What breed is this cow?
a. Milking Shorthorn
b. Simental
c. Guernsey
d. Brown Swiss*
e. Holstein

24.  What is considered the best material for bedding freestalls?
a. newspaper
b. straw
c. sand*
d. recycled manure
e. sawdust

Station 69 (blue)

55.  What is this breed of dairy cow?
a. Holstein*
b. Brown Swiss
c. Jersey
d. Angus
e. Guernsey

56.  Which of the following is a common foot problem in cattle?
a. Foot rot
b. Laminitis
c. Hairy Heel Warts
d. Sole Ulcers
e. All of the above.*

57.  Which of the following feeds does not provide much fiber in a diary cow's ration?
a. Corn Silage
b. Dry Hay
c. Whole Cotton Seed*
d. Soybean Meal
e. Tricale Silage

Station 80 (blue)
 

88.  Approximately what percentage of lameness occurs in the rear legs of dairy cows?
a. 25%
b. 90%*
c. 100%
d. about 50%
e. 75%

89.  What is the most important economic disease of dairy cattle?
a. mastitis*
b. laminitis
c. salmonella
d. E. coli
e. milk fever

90.  Which of the following instruments is best for applying teat dip?
a.
b.
c. *
d.
e. Any will do.

Station 91 (blue)
 

121.  Which of the following is true?
a. Cows need only limited ventilation.
b. Cows are stressed by heat beginning at 85 degrees Farenheit.
c. Cow freestalls must be 9 feet long.
d. Mattresses eliminate the need for any bedding.
e. Blood circulation to the udder improves when cows are lying down.*

122. How many liters in a gallon?
a. 2.5
b. 3.8*
c. 4.5
d. 5.8
e. 10.6

123. One ml equals ________ cc.
a. one*
b. ten
c. 12
d. 24
e. 100

Station 4 (red)
 

10.  The average American eats ___ pounds of fish per year?
a. 35
b. 15*
c. 9
d. 25
e. 30

11.  The highest concentration of Dissolved Oxygen in a pond occurs:
a. Mid to late morning
b. Mid to late afternoon*
c. Midnight
d. Dawn
e. Noon

12.  The lowest concentration of Dissolved Oxygen in a pond occurs:
a. Mid morning
b. Mid afternoon
c. Mid evening
d. Just before dawn*
e. Midnight

Station 15 (red)
 

43.  Most fish require a Dissolved Oxygen reading of at least ___ppm for good health, etc.
a. 10
b. 16
c. 4*
d. 20
e. 50

44.  African Fish, mouthbrooder, die in temperatures of less than 50 degrees F, white fish meat.
a. Catfish
b. Crappie
c. Tilapia*
d. Hybrid Striped Bass
e. Trout

45.  How many fingerling catfish can you stock in a 40 cubic foot cage?
a. 250
b. 350*
c. 475
d. 600
e. 800

Station 26 (red)
 

76.  A fish stocked in ponds to eat weeds, etc…grows to 35~38 inches in 5 years.
a. Trout
b. Sunfish
c. Catfish
d. Pike
e. Grass Carp*

77.  Netting for fish cages can be made of what?
a. Plastic
b. Wire
c. Polyester
d. None of the above
e. All of the above*

78.  What is the standard depth of netting used in fish cage construction?
a. 2 feet
b. 4 feet*
c. 6 feet
d. 8 feet
e. 10 feet

Station 37 (red)
 

109.  When putting a cage in a pond, what is the minimum depth the pond can be?
a. 2 inches below the bottom of the cage
b. 1 foot below the bottom of the cage
c. 2 feet below the bottom of the cage*
d. 4 feet below the bottom of the cage
e. 6 feet below the bottom of the cage

110.  This fish can be grown in cages in ponds in winters in Indiana.
a. Catfish
b. Crayfish
c. Sunfish
d. Tilapia
e. Trout*

111.  A type of pond built above ground in Indiana:
a. Bank pond
b. Dam Pond
c. Fenced pond
d. Levee pond*
e. Embanked pond

Station 48 (red)
 

142.  What is a “medium” stocking rate for grass carp?
a. 5
b. 15*
c. 25
d. 35
e. 50

143.  What are the small floating zooplankton in ponds called?
a. Alkaloids
b. Galls
c. Flukes
d. Limeoids
e. Bloom*

144.  What is the device called to measure water clarity?
a. Biofilter
b. Quad meter
c. Secchi disc*
d. Density Box
e. Photometer

Station 59 (blue)
 

25.  When is the best time to harvest fish?
a. Dawn
b. Mid morning
c. Noon
d. Late afternoon*
e. Night

26.  What is the purpose of the biofilter in a recirculating system?
a. Add oxygen
b. Supply food for fish
c. Oxidize iron
d. Produce algae
e. Oxidize ammonia*

27.  What is the most critical water quality for fish?
a. pH
b. 4-H
c. Nitrite
d. Oxygen*
e. Temperature

Station 70 (blue)
 

58.  What is the biggest problem for oxygen for fish ponds in winter?
a. Ice
b. Snow*
c. Wind
d. Wind Chill
e. Freezing Rain

59.  Rule of thumb to feed fish in cages.
a. All they want.
b. Have food floating all day.
c. Have food floating all night.
d. All they will clean up in 10- 15 minutes.*
e. Never over once per day.

60.  Microscopic Algae can:
a. Forms scums
b. Cause red and black streaks in water
c. Can cause “oily” water
d. Are not consumed by grass carp
e. All of the above.*

Station 81 (blue)
 

91.  When is the best time to apply aquatic herbicides?
a. Late spring*
b. Late fall
c. Late summer
d. July only
e. August only

92.  Fish diseases are:
a. Easy to diagnose and treat.
b. Difficult to diagnose and easy to treat.
c. Not ever important.
d. Difficult to diagnose and treat.*
e. Easily identified by local veterinarians.

93.  The most common fish kill in Indiana comes from:
a. Diseases
b. Parasites
c. Lightning
d. Oxygen*
e. Muddy water

Station 92 (blue)
 

124.  If you stock 100 small mouth bass in a pond for sport fishing, how many bluegill fish should you also stock?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500*
d. 1,000
e. 2,000

125.  One pound equals ______________ grams.
a. 55
b. 100
c. 258.5
d. 454*
e. 1,000

126.  One kilogram equals _________ pounds.
a. 1.1
b. 2.2*
c. 3.3
d. 6.0
e. 100.0

Station 5 (red)
 

13. Paylean should be fed to pigs weighing how many pounds?
a. 30-125
b. 90-125
c. 125-150
d. 150-240*

14. Where is the proper site for giving a baby pig an iron injection?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4*

15. What is the gestation length of a sow?
a. 65-68 days
b. 112-115 days*
c. 152-155 days
d. 201-204 days

Station 16 (red)
 

46. Using the universal system, what is the ear notch of this pig?
a. 11-3*
b. 32-9
c. 3-11
d. 24-10

47. What is the optimal length of time Paylean should be fed?
a. 10 days
b. 7 days
c. 60 days
d. 21 days*

48. Identify the breeds of swine in picture order.
a. Yorkshire, Chester White, Berkshire, and Tamworth
b. Yorkshire, Chester White, Poland China, and Duroc
c. Landrace, Chester White, Poland China, and Duroc*
d. Chester White, Landrace, Poland China, and Tamworth

Station 27 (red)
 

79. What is the most valuable pork cut?
a. Loin*
b. Ham
c. Shoulder
d. Bacon

80. Which one of the pork cuts is a Loin Chop?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4*

81. What two breeds does one cross to get a white pig with gray spots on its rump, called a Blue Butt?
a. Hampshire X Duroc
b. Yorkshire X Chester White
c. Hampshire X Yorkshire*
d. Berkshire X Poland China

Station 38 (red)
 

112. A measure of carcass leanness is the loin eye area at what rib?
a. 10th*
b. 12th
c. 8th
d. 9th

113. Where is semen deposited in the sow?
a. Bladder
b. Vulva
c. Vagina
d. Cervix*

114. In which organ does the embryo grow and develop?
a. Ovaries
b. Uterine Horns*
c. Oviducts
d. Cervix

Station 49 (red)
 

145. What is this device used for?
a. Drinking a large beverage.
b. Inseminating a sow.*
c. Removing embryos from a female animal.
d. Inseminating a cow.

146. Which is considered to be a good indicator of frame size in feeder pigs?
a. Length of tail
b. Length of body*
c. Breed
d. Weight

147. Gilts should reach puberty at what age?
a. 3 to 4 months
b. 4 to 5 months
c. 5.5 to 6.5 months*
d. 7.5 to 8 months

Station 60 (blue)
 

28.  What do the letters PSE stand for?
a. Pink Soft Exudative
b. Pale Soft Exudative*
c. Pale Soggy Eggs
d. Pickled Sow Embryos

29.  What is the minimum acceptable loin eye area?
a. 3 sq. inch
b. 5 sq. inch*
c. 7 sq. inch
d. 9 sq. inch

30.  What is the average volume of semen produced by the boar?
a. 50-100
b. 100-150
c. 150-200 ml*
d. 200-300

Station 71 (blue)
 

61.  What is the average litter size born alive?
a. 5
b. 10*
c. 15
d. 20

62.  When measuring carcass composition using grids and probes, which of the following factors are used to predict percent carcass lean?  1) warm carcass weight, 2) loin eye area at the 10th rib, 3) fat depth at the 10th rib?
a. #1
b. #2
c. #3
d. #1, 2 and 3*

63.  AutoFOM uses _________ to measure carcass fat and loin depth.
a. light reflectance
b. x-rays
c. gamma – rays
d. ultrasound*

Station 82 (blue)
 

94.  The Tobec machine measures carcass lean content using:
a. light reflectance
b. x-rays
c. an electromagnetic field*
d. ultrasound

95. How many needle teeth do piglets have?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8*
d. all lower teeth

96. How long after the first vaccination does an animal start developing immunity to the disease?
a. About 1 week
b. About 2 weeks*
c. About 3 weeks
d. About 1 month

Station 93 (blue)
 

127.  Ractopamine does not do which of the following?
a. Increases carcass lean mass.
b. Increases feed intake.*
c. Decreases backfat thickness.
d. Increases protein accretion.

128.  Which building did we all meet in for the welcome session Wednesday afternoon?
a. Computer Science
b. Founders Building of 1869
c. Smith
d. Hovde
e. Class of 1950*

129.  The size of a porcine ovum is:
a. that of a chicken egg
b. about one inch diameter
c. equal to this period “.” *
d. one-half the size of a chicken egg
e. so small that it would take one million side by side to equal one mm

Station 6 (red)
 

16.  Which of the following dog breeds shed very little hair, if at all?
a. Labrador Retriever
b. Standard Poodle*
c. Brittany Spaniel
d. Dachshund
e. Old English Sheepdog

17.  Which of the following is not a reason why cats will use a scratching post?
a. Visual marking of territory/home range
b. Stretching after napping
c. Removing older nail sheaths from their claws
d. Scent marking of territory/home range
e. All of the above are reasons cats use a scratching post*

18.  Which of the following dog breeds need the least amount of outdoor exercise?
a. Golden Retriever
b. Australian Shepherd
c. Jack Russell Terrier
d. German Shorthair Pointer
e. Pekingese*

Station 17 (red)
 

49.  Additional costs in the first year related to acquiring a new puppy include:
a. Veterinary exam and preventive medications
b. Food and supplies
c. Neutering or pre-breeding testing
d. Training classes
e. All of the above are necessary*

50.  Which of the following is an incorrect statement about litter box care?
a. A household with two cats should have 3 litter boxes.
b. Remove the cat's waste every 24-48 hours.
c. Change the brand or type of litter frequently to keep your cat interested in new textures.*
d. Thoroughly rinse and clean the box once a week.
e. Avoid use of heavily scented or perfumed litter in the litter box.

51.  CERF stands for:
a. Central European Regional Four-H
b. Canine Ear Research Foundation
c. Cat Early Retirement Fund
d. Canine Eye Registry Foundation*
e. Caprine Evergreen Repellant Formula

Station 28 (red)
 

82.  Which of the following best describes how to properly clean a pet's ear?
a. Fill up the ear canal with cleaner, squish it around, and wipe out with cotton balls.*
b. Apply hydrogen peroxide to dissolve the wax and kill bacteria.
c. Gently use cotton swabs to remove wax from deep in the ear canal.
d. Apply vinegar and water to dry out the ear.
e. Pluck all the hair out with an ear powder.

83.  Dogs and cats typically need their first teeth cleaning and polishing at what age?
a. 6-12 months
b. 1-2 years
c. 3-4 years*
d. 5-6 years
e. 7-10 years

84.  Cats and small dogs are first considered "senior" (entering their second half of life) at what age?
a. 5 years
b. 7 years*
c. 9 years
d. 11 years
e. 13 years

Station 39 (red)
 

115.  Select the incorrect statement on horse reproduction.
a.  Mares have two ovaries.
b.  Mares are termed long-day breeders.
c.  Twins are common in horses.*
d.  The gestation length in horses is approx. 342 days.
e.  The stallion has two testes.

116.  Select the incorrect statement on horse anatomy.
a.  The horse does not have a rumen.
b.  The horse does have a gallbladder.*
c.  The horse does not have an abomasum.
d.  The coffin bone is located within the horse’s foot.
e.  The horse does have a liver.

117.  How many chromosomes does a newborn horse possess?
a.  24
b.  26
c.  43
d.  64*
e.  86

Station 50 (red)
 

148.  Placental hormones of the horse include:
a.  progesterone, estrogen, and eCG*
b.  calcitonin, hCG, and progesterone
c.  hCG, growth hormone, and somatomedin
d.  progesterone and melatonin
e.  hCG, progesterone, and estrogen

149.  The stage of the horse’s estrous cycle that directly follows estrus is:
a.  proestrus
b.  metestrus*
c.  diestrus
d.  anestrus
e.  pseudo-estrus

150.  In the stallion, the ___________ is the site of sperm storage and final maturation.
a.  testis
b.  vas deferens
c.  prostate gland
d.  urethra
e.  epididymis*

Station 61 (blue)
 

31.  Ataxia in the horse is characterized by:
a.  An inability to coordinate the muscles in the execution of voluntary movement.*
b.  The inability to expel the placenta after parturition.
c.  The fact that twins are rare in horses.
d.  Lack of milk let-down in the mare.
e.  The presence of a PDA in the neonate.

32.  An immature female chicken is called:
a.  cockerel
b.  hen
c.  pullet *
d.  leghorn
e.  rooster

33.  An immature male chicken is called:
a.  poult
b.  leghorn
c.  cockerel*
d.  gander
e.  condor

Station 72 (blue)
 

64.  The number of chromosomes in the chicken is:
a. 22
b. 36*
c. 46
d. 66
e. 86

65.  Avian females have:
a.  one functional ovary- on the left side*
b.  one functional ovary-on the rightside
c.  two functional ovaries
d.  no ovaries
e.  just lays eggs from preformed ova without ovaries

66.  What is the normal body temperature of a chicken?
a.  95 F
b.  98 F
c.  100 F
d.  103 F
e.  107 F*

Station 83 (blue)
 

97.  In birds, ______________ is a method of increasing ______________ over the respiratory dead-space.
a.  convection, heat increment
b.  panting, blood flow
c.  gular flutter, air flow*
d.  horripilation, evaporation
e.  blood flow, effective surface area

98.  Avian bones tend to have air filled spaces and hence are called _________ bones.
a.  light
b.  vascular
c.  ventilation
d.  pneumatic*
e.  von Willebrand's

99.  An adult male duck is called a:
a.  drake*
b.  duckling
c.  tom
d.  tommy
e.  gander

Station 94 (blue)
 

130.  The breastbone in the chicken is also called the:
a.  sternum*
b.  girdle
c.  femur
d.  hock
e.  pygostyle

131.  The glandular stomach of the chicken is also called the:
a.  crop
b.  ventriculus
c.  cecum
d.  ceca
e.  proventriculus*

132.  The queen’s milk contains about:
a.  5% protein
b.  14% protein
c.  27% protein
d.  32% protein
e.  42% protein*

Station 7 (red)
 

19.  The frequency of rumen contractions in a normal adult cow is ____ per 2 minutes.
a. 1
b. 3*
c. 4
d. 6
e. 9

20.  The average, normal temperature in a cow is:
a. 100.0o F
b. 101.5 *
c. 102.5
d. 103
e. 106

21. Capillary Refill Time (CRT) is used to evaluate an animal's:
a. Digestive system
b. Respiratory system
c. Cardiovascular system*
d. Lymphatic system
e. Integumentary system

Station 18 (red)
 

52.  When giving a cow a bolus (pill), the balling gun is placed _____ where the bolus is ejected from the balling gun.
a. In the animal's cheek (between teeth & cheek).
b. Under the tongue.
c. Behind and on top of the base of the tongue.*
d. In the esophagus.
e. On top of the tongue, in the middle of the mouth.

53.  The intramuscular (IM) injection site of choice in cattle over 300 lbs is:
a. Neck*
b. Triceps
c. Loin
d. Hamstring
e. Gluteal

54.  Which one of the following is the least effective means of keeping a cow from kicking?
a. Hobbles
b. Tie rear leg to a post behind the cow
c. Rope flank squeeze
d. Tail restraint
e. Nose leads (tongs)*

Station 29 (red)
 

85.  A cow's primary means of defense is to:
a. Kick
b. Butt you with her head
c. Run*
d. Squeeze you up against a wall
e. Bite

86.  Which one of the following knots will create a loop that will not change in size regardless of how hard it is pulled?
a. Square
b. Two half hitches
c. Halter tie
d. Bowline*
e. Clove hitch

87.  This piece of equipment is used to _____ (flank squeeze--delete name on question)
a. Lift chunks of ice
b. Measure diameters of trees
c. Measure the width of a cow's hip bones
d. Keep a cow from kicking*
e. Hang a water bucket on the side of a stall

Station 40 (red)
 

118.  Without turning their heads, cattle can see almost ____ degrees around them.
a. 90
b. 180
c. 220
d. 270
e. 360*

119.  The quickest and easiest, yet effective, method of restraint used to castrate a bull calf is:
a. Nose leads
b. Tail restraint*
c. Hobbles
d. Flank squeeze
e. Criss-cross method of rope casting

120.  The herding instinct in cattle is:
a. Extremely strong
b. Very strong*
c. Present sometimes
d. Present very little
e. Nonexistent

Station 51 (blue)
 

1. A bloated cow will show distension as a:
a. Distended rib cage
b. Distended right paralumbar fossa
c. Distended left paralumbar fossa*
d. Distended left lower abdomen
e. Distended right lower abdomen

2. A stressed bovine will have all of the following signs, the most serious being:
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased respiratory rate
c. Sweating
d. Open mouth breathing*
e. Feel hot

3. The pulse site of choice on a cow is:
a. Under the jaw
b. Inside the knee
c. Between the dewclaws
d. On the inside of the back leg
e. On the ventral midline of the tail*

Station 62 (blue)
 

34.  Animal health evaluation should always begin with:
a. Observation of the animal.*
b. Determination of the body temperature.
c. Examination of the digestive system.
d. Examination of feces.
e. Examination of blood from the animal.

35.  To examine the lymphatic (immune) system in the dog or cat, the simplest thing to do is:
a. Take a blood sample and count white blood cells.
b. Determine the animal's body temperature.
c. Check for a cough or snotty nose.
d. Palpate lymph nodes.*
e. Check the vaccination history.

36.  A dog chewing on it's feet could be an indication of all of the following except:
a. Food allergy
b. Thorns in the feet
c. Fleas
d. Allergy to molds
e. Hookworm infection*

Station 73 (blue)
 

67.  In performing a necropsy on a pig, the snout should be cut off to evaluate for:
a. Nasal bots
b. Atrophic rhinitis*
c. Nose length
d. Sinus infection
e. Hog rings

68.  A good place to check the pulse on a dog is:
a. On the inside of the thigh.*
b. At the point of the chin.
c. On the ventral midline of the tail.
d. Between the dewclaws.
e. Under the tongue.

69.  This instrument is used to:  (balling gun--do not put name of instrument on)
a. Extract rumen fluid from a cow.
b. Administer a bolus to a cow.*
c. Take a "punch biopsy" of tissue from a cow.
d. Collect a fecal specimen from an animal.
e. Measure medicine for treatment of horses.

Station 84 (blue)
 

100.  Identify the knot shown by name:
a. Square knot
b. Clove hitch
c. Bowline*
d. Half hitch
e. Granny knot

101.  This knot (goes with question 21 object) is used to:
a. Create a loop that will not slip.
b. Anchor something with a quick release.
c. Tie up cow's or horse's tails.
d. Join two ropes of different size.
e. a and d*

102.  This instrument is used for what purpose?  (ear thermometer)
a. Rectal palpation in cats.
b. Endoscopy of lizards.
c. Measuring body temperature in dogs and cats.*
d. Examining the ears of small animals.
e. Examining dogs for cataracts.
 

Station 95 (blue)
 

133.  Cats with polydactyly have:
a. Poor eye sight
b. Extra toes*
c. Blood-tinged urine
d. Spots on their coats that are devoid of hair
e. Dead fetuses within the uterus

134.  The average normal body temperature of the cat is:
a. 95.6 F
b. 98.6 F
c. 100.0 F
d. 101.5 F*
e. 106 F

135.  The organ in the cat that produces insulin is the:
a. thyroid gland
b. pineal gland
c. bladder
d. pancreas*
e. liver

Station 8 (red)
 

22.  The national organization that recognizes breeds of rabbits is:
a. The Society for Animal Science
b. The American Rabbit Breeders Association*
c. The Indiana Rabbit Breeders Association
d. The United States Department of Agriculture
e. The American Association for Laboratory Animal Science

23.  Rabbits that are over ___________ pounds should be housed on solid bottom floors.
a. 5
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12*
e. 15

24.  Temperatures in excess of ____________0 Fahrenheit will impair the semen quality of most bucks.
a. 70
b. 75
c. 80*
d. 90
e. 100

Station 19 (red)
 

55.  Breeders would most likely use _______________ for producing research rabbits.
a. Inbreeding*
b. Hybrid breeding
c. Cross breeding
d. Outbreeding
e. None of the above

56.  Air should be exhausted out of the barn at:
a. Highest point of the barn, with prevailing winds.*
b. Lowest point of the barn, against prevailing winds.
c. Highest point of the barn, against prevailing winds.
d. Lowest point of the barn, with prevailing winds.
e. Highest point of the barn, cross-wise to prevailing winds.

57.  The breed that is displayed is:
a. Flemish Giant
b. New Zealand White
c. Rhinelander
d. Dwarf Hoto *
e. Checkered Giant

Station 30 (red)
 

88.  The breed that is displayed is:
a. New Zealand White
b. Dutch Belted
c. English Lop*
d. Netherland Dwarf
e. Flemish Giant

89.  The breed that is displayed is:
a. French Angora
b. English Lop
c. Harlequin
d. Hoto
e. Himalayan*

90.  The body type of this rabbit is:
a. Commercial
b. Mandolin
c. Full Arched
d. Compact
e. Cylindrical*

Station 41 (red)
 

121.  The body type of this rabbit is:
a. Commercial
b. Mandolin*
c. Full Arched
d. Compact
e. Cylindrical

122.  Many rabbits are pre-disposed to respiratory disease due to:
a. Breed type
b. Genetics
c. Poor handling
d. Inadequate ventilation*
e. Inadequate veterinary care

123.  Endoparasites are parasites that live:
a. In the barn
b. In the rabbit hutch
c. In the rabbit*
d. Outside the rabbit
e. On the rabbit

Station 52 (blue)
 

4.  Rabbits are the intermediate host for:
a. Tapeworms*
b. Hookworms
c. Inchworms
d. Whipworms
e. Earthworms

5.  The “peek a boo” worm usually attaches itself to the rabbit in the area of:
a. The anal region
b. The ears
c. The chin *
d. The hocks
e. The forehead

6.  Psoroptes Cuniculi is an arthropod, which attacks the rabbit in the area of:
a. The rear hocks
b. The chin
c. The head
d. The abdomen
e. The ears*

Station 63 (blue)
 

37.  Rabbit feed pellets should generally be:
a. Long and wide in diameter
b. Long and short in diameter
c. Short and wide in diameter
d. Short and short in diameter*
e. None of the above

38.  To prevent overfeeding breeders should feed rabbits the amount of feed that they will routinely consume in:
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes*
d. 60 minutes
e. 90 minutes

39.  Rabbits being nocturnal animals should be fed:
a. First thing in the morning
b. Mid-morning
c. Noon
d. Mid-Afternoon
e. Evening*

Station 74 (blue)
 

70.  “Night feces” are a source of vitamin _____ for the domestic rabbit.
a. A
b. B*
c. C
d. D
e. E

71.  To condition a domestic rabbit, one should feed a diet that is:
a. High in protein, low in fiber
b. High in fiber, low in energy*
c. High in fiber, high in energy
d. Low in fiber, low in energy
e. Low in fiber high in energy

72.  Newborn rabbits are totally dependent upon maternal care for:
a. 1 – 2 weeks
b. 2 – 3 weeks
c. 3 – 5 weeks
d. 4 – 6 weeks*
e. 6 – 8 weeks

Station 85 (blue)
 

103.  Which rabbit pelt is used for designer fur?
a. Belgian hare
b. Netherland dwarf
c. Dutch belt
d. Himalayan
e. Rex*

104.  If a nesting box is changed from one location to another, it is very important to place ______ in the box as when the rabbit was initially trained.
a. Excreta*
b. Hair
c. Environmental enrichment device
d. Crock
e. None of the above

105.  Does may be successfully rebred _____ days after kindling.
a. 2
b. 3*
c. 4
d. 5
e. 10

Station 96 (blue)
 

136.  A _______ ml syringe will suffice for most injections with the domestic rabbit.
a. 1 – 3*
b. 2 – 4
c. 3 – 5
d. 4 – 6
e. 6 – 8

137.  A red blood cell can also be termed a:
a. cytoplasm
b. platelet
c. leukocyte
d. erythrocyte*
e. thrombocyte

138.  Luteinizing hormone is produced by the:
a. ovary
b. bone cells
c. brain
d. pineal gland
e. anterior pituitary*

Station 9 (red)
 

25.  Which of the following is not one of the top 5 egg producing states in the United States today?
a. Ohio
b. Indiana
c. Pennsylvania
d. Minnesota*

26.  The only difference between a white egg and a brown egg, besides the color, is:
a. The amount of calcium in the shell.
b. The amount of protein in the yolk.
c. The increased size of the yolk in brown eggs.
d. None of the above.*

27.  At what age do turkeys begin laying eggs?
a. 20 weeks
b. 10 weeks
c. 40 weeks
d. 30 weeks*

Station 20 (red)
 

58.  At 42 days of age, a broiler can be expected to weigh:
a. 21 lbs
b. 8 lbs
c. 6.5 lbs
d. 4.1 lbs *

59.  Layers are brought into lay by, which of the following?
a. Layers are reared until 30-weeks of age and then they automatically begin laying eggs.
b. Layers are reared until 20 to 25 weeks of age and then photostimulated to bring them into egg production. *
c. Layers are reared until 60-weeks of age and then photostimulated to bring them into egg production.
d. Layers are reared until 80-weeks of age and then photostimulated to bring them into egg production.

60.  The domestic chicken has ________ air sacs.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. 9*

Station 31 (red)

91.  Which vitamin is needed for blood clotting?
a.  A
b.  D
c.  C
d.  E
e.  K*

92.  Select one volatile fatty acid produced in the rumen.
a.  carbon dioxide
b.  acetate*
c.  oxygen
d.  amino acid
e.  methane

93.  ________ is the act of giving birth.
a.  dilatation
b.  capacitation
c.  hemostasis
d.  parturition*
e.  fertilization

Station 42 (red)
 

124.  The "buffy coat" on top of the red blood cells after centrifugation are:
a.  caused by anemia
b.  dead red blood cells
c.  leukocytes*
d.  erythrocytes
e.  caused by dehydration

125.  Edema is an excess of:
a.  intracellular fluid
b.  plasma in blood
c.  cytoplasmic fluid
d.  interstitial fluid in tissue*
e.  blood in tissue

126.  Rapid destruction of erythrocytes in the blood will cause elevated levels of:
a.  white blood cells
b.  somatomedins
c.  angiotensinogen
d.  plasma albumin
e.  plasma bilirubin*

Station 53 (blue)
 

7.  Clotted blood that has been subjected to centrifugation yields:
a.  cerebrospinal fluid
b.  saliva
c.  lymph
d.  serum*
e.  plasma

8.  Purdue University was founded in:
a.  1669
b.  1711
c.  1869*
d.  1901
e.  1963

9.  Caprine is an adjective that refers to:
a.  cattle
b.  chickens
c.  ducks
d.  swine
e.  goats*

Station 64 (blue)
 

40.  A dairy cow has ______ mammary gland(s).
a. one
b. two
c. four*
d. six
e. three

41.  One square yard equals ______ square feet.
a. one
b. three
c. nine*
d. ten
e. sixteen

42.  In cattle, this term means naturally having no horns.
a. docked
b. pointed
c. buffed
d. polled*
e. smooth

Station 75 (blue)
 

73.  A mare has __________ mammary gland(s).
a. one
b. two*
c. three
d. four
e. five

74.  An intact male sheep is called a:
a. boar
b. stud
c. ram*
d. bull
e. staple

75.  The __________ produces bile.
a. brain
b. spleen
c. pineal gland
d. cecum
e. liver*

Station 86 (blue)
 

106.  Cottonseed meal contains about ____ percent protein.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40*
d. 60
e. 67.5

107.  The ______ nerve is the largest nerve in the dog.
a. third
b. vagus
c. ninth
d. optic*
e. sympathetic

108.  The ___________ in cattle is really the chest area.
a. flank
b. poll
c. shank
d. brisket*
e. paunch

Station 97 (blue)
 

139.  The female cat is known as a ______ ovulator.
a. spontaneous
b. quick
c. slow
d. reflex*
e. double

140.  The generation interval in cattle is about ____ years.
a. one
b. two
c. four*
d. six
e. 7 to 10

141.  The building blocks for proteins are:
a. steroids
b. fats
c. hormones
d. amino acids*
e. vitamins

Station 10 (red)
 

28.  Which forage is a legume?
a. Orchard grass
b. Fescue
c. Bluegrass
d. Alfalfa*
e. Flax

29.  Which feed is used to supply energy to lambs?
a. Limestone
b. Soybean meal
c. Corn*
d. Flax
e. Vitamin D

30.  Pregnancy detection in ewes is usually determined with which technology?
a. Ultrasound*
b. Laprascopic/manual techniques
c. X-ray films
d. Insemination detector
e. Hormone assay of urine

Station 21 (red)
 

61.  Which of the following is not one of the four main wholesale cuts from a lamb carcass?
a. Leg
b. Rack
c. Shoulder
d. Neck*
e. None of the above

62.  What factor is the primary determinant of the USDA Yield Grade for sheep?
a. Leg score
b. Fat thickness*
c. Break joint
d. Ribeye size
e. Neck score

63.  A subcutaneous injection for a lamb would be given where?
a. In the muscle
b. In the mouth
c. Under the skin*
d. Rectally
e. Per os

Station 32 (red)
 

94.  Footrot in sheep is caused by?
a. Virus
b. Bacteria*
c. Nutritional disorder
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

95.  Sheep feet are trimmed to:
a. Prevent footrot
b. Make them look better
c. Help the sheep walk easier
d. All of the above*
e. None of the above

96.  When moving or showing sheep, you should be on what side of the animal?
a. Left*
b. Right
c. Rear
d. Underneath
e. In front of

Station 43 (red)
 

127.  What is an average range for a lamb’s carcass dressing percent?
a. 38 to 42%
b. 48 to 52%*
c. 58 to 62%
d. 68 to 72%
e. 75 to 100%

128.  Flushing is used in sheep to:
a. Treat a disease
b. Improve reproductive performance*
c. Get them ready for the fair
d. Prepare for shearing
e. Prepare for selling

129.  Which of the following is not one of the four compartments of a sheep stomach?
a. Rumen
b. Omasum
c. Abomasum
d. Colon*
e. Reticulum

Station 54 (blue)
 

10.  What are some basic types of production records used to select sheep?
a. Type of birth*
b. Show ring placing of sire
c. Breed
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

11.  Withdrawal time for medications means:
a. Time an animal must be off medication before slaughter.*
b. Time feed and water is withheld.
c. Amount of medication given to an animal.
d. None of the above.
e. a and c from above.

12.  Labels on medications give instructions for:
a. Dosage given to animal.
b. How to store medication.
c. Withdrawal time.
d. Precautions.
e. All of the above.*

Station 65 (blue)
 

43.  Club lamb fungus, or ringworm, is a significant health issue in sheep because it:
a. Can infect people*
b. Can kill sheep
c. Will never go away
d. Makes carcass condemned
e. All of the above

44.  Sheep catch ringworm by:
a. Frequent shearing and washing
b. Sharing contaminated equipment
c. Contact with an infected sheep
d. All of the above*
e. None of the above

45.  Realtime ultrasound can be used to:
a. Measure fat depth in an animal
b. Measure ribeye area
c. Determine pregnancy
d. All of the above*
e. None of the above

Station 76 (blue)
 

76.  Which is evaluated in a ram breeding soundness exam?
a. Physical condition*
b. Show ring placing
c. Performance records
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

77.  Where do you handle lambs to predict carcass fat depth?
a. Lower leg
b. Neck
c. Ribs and backbone*
d. Shoulder
e. All of the above

78.  Where do you handle lambs to predict carcass muscle?
a. Loin and leg*
b. Flank
c. Neck
d. Backbone
e. Mouth

Station 87 (blue)
 

109.  An example of a grass would be:
a. Red clover
b. Lespedeza
c. Alfalfa
d. Trefoil
e. Fescue*

110.  Footwear is disinfected to:
a. Keep your boots from smelling
b. Control spread of disease*
c. To make your boots shiny
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

111.  The blades on a sheep shearing machine are called:
a. Rake and cutter
b. Comb and brush
c. Top and bottom blades
d. Comb and cutter*
e. None of the above

Station 98 (blue)
 

142.  Which of the following is not an amino acid?
a. arginine
b. lysine
c. leucine
d. cystine
e. septine*

143.  ___________ is the study of animal behavior.
a. Nephrology
b. Ethology*
c. Histology
d. Behavology
e. Psychology

144.  TGE in swine is caused by a:
a. bacterium
b. fungus
c. tick
d. rat
e. virus*

Station 11 (red)
 

31.  The priority rank for supplying nutrients in horse diets should always be which of the following?
a. Grain > supplements > hay > pasture > water
b. Pasture > hay > grain > supplements > water*
c. Water > hay > pasture > grain > supplements
d. Hay > grain > water > pasture > supplements
e. Supplements > hay > grain > pasture > water

32.  What percentage of the horse’s body weight would you expect it to maximally eat of total dry matter every day?
a. ½%
b. 2 ½%*
c. 5%
d. 10%
e. 20%

33.  What category of adult horse has the highest requirements per day for crude protein, calcium, and energy total?
a. maintenance
b. gestation
c. lactation*
d. intense work
e. breeding

Station 22 (red)
 

64.  Approximately how much water would you expect a 1,300-pound horse to drink per day?
a. 6 – 7 quarts
b. 6 – 7 gallons
c. 12 – 14 quarts
d. 12 - 14 gallons*
e. 24 – 28 gallons

65.  In what segment of the horse industry are there the most jobs and potential for income?
a. On-farm breeding
b. Feed, health & equipment sales*
c. Training
d. Jockey
e. Veterinarian

66.  During what month would you expect most of the foals in North America to be born?
a. January
b. February
c. March
d. April*
e. May

Station 33 (red)
 

97.  At what stage of horse pregnancy would you expect the endrometrial cups to be formed in the mare?
a. day 12
b. day 24
c. day 36*
d. day 48
e. day 60

98.  Which of the following is a mycotoxin affecting the horse?
a. fumonisin*
b. vomitoxin
c. zeralenone
d. aflatoxin
e. endophyte

99.  What is the acronym (letters for four words in title) for the foal loss problem in Lexington?
a. MRLS*
b. HASB
c. KTBA
d. THKF
e. WCTS

Station 44 (red)
 

130.  In the end, what is thought to be the cause of the abortions/stillbirths of 30% of the 2001 foal crop in central Kentucky?
a. estrogens in clover
b. zeralenone in bluegrass
c. fumonisin in rye grass
d. hydrogen cyanide in cherry tree leaves*
e. endophyte in fescue

131.  What is the word or type of metabolism that describes the muscle type of horses, which goes for long, slow distances and is best suited to utilize oxygen efficiently without buildup of lactic acid?
a. aerobic*
b. ataxia
c. hyperkalemic
d. anaerobic
e. hypoglycemic

132.  Approximately what heart rate represents the VO2 max of an athletic horse?
a. 40 bpm
b. 80 bpm
c. 120 bpm
d. 160 bpm
e. 200 bpm*

Station 55 (blue)
 

13.  What is the respiratory disease in horses that we call heaves and approximates emphysema and difficulty exhaling?
a. roaring
b. COPD*
c. thrush
d. asthma
e. navicular

14.  Which of the following is not a method of increasing the intensity of the work in a standard exercise test for hoses on a treadmill?
a. Add weight
b. Work faster
c. Go up an incline
d. Work longer*
e. Soften the footing

15.  On which digit does the horse stand?
a. one
b. two
c. three*
d. four
e. five

Station 66 (blue)
 

46.  What is the common name for this bone of the horse?
a. cannon bone*
b. pastern bone
c. shoulder bone
d. elbow
e. coffin bone

47.  What disease is associated with the degradation of this bone?
a. laminitis
b. navicular*
c. bowed tendons
d. bucked shins
e. carpal chips

48.  What structure of the horse’s leg does this bone represent?
a. elbow
b. knee
c. sesamoid
d. pastern
e. splint*

Station 77 (blue)
 

79.  What common unsoundness is caused by long, low, weak, pasterns; working horses in deep surfaces and results in inflammation and hemorrhage around the deep digital flexor tendon?
a. tendonitis
b. bowed tendon*
c. curbs
d. check ligaments
e. laminitis

80.  What is the primary “soft tissue” structure that keeps the animal’s leg upright, stabilizes the pastern joints, and keeps the horses foot from extending or flexing too far?
a. superficial flexor tendon
b. frog
c. semitendonosis
d. deltoid muscles
e. suspensory ligament*

81.  What is the acronym (first letters of words in title) for Purdue University’s therapeutic horseback riding & driving program?
a. CORRAL
b. NARHA
c. THE AQHA
d. THE NRHA
e. THE CHAPS*

Station 88 (blue)
 

112.  What is the average or “ideal” body condition score for horses?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5*
d. 7
e. 9

113.  What is the name of the farm that is home to Purdue’s Intercollegiate Horse Show Teams?
a. Fantasy
b. Foxton*
c. Three Chimneys
d. Forrest Hill
e. Kings Hill

114.  What is the largest expense in routine management of a horse boarding stable?
a. Hoof care
b. insurance
c. health care
d. feed*
e. equipment

Station 99 (blue)
 

145.  At what age would most Thoroughbred racehorses begin routine training?
a. 12 months
b. 18 months*
c. 24 months
d. 30 months
e. 36 months

146.  What is the chemical symbol for potassium?
a. Bo
b. P
c. Po
d. K*
e. M

147.  What is the chemical symbol for sodium?
a. S
b. So
c. Ca
d. Na*
e. Xa